2018 education question paper solved

UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper with Answers: Download PDF of Past 10 Years

Jun 12, 2024

CBSE UGC NET Latest Updates

• 12 June, 2024 : UGC NET Admit Card June 2024 Out (Soon): Exam on June 18
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UGC NET Previous Year Question Papers, Sample Papers, and Mock Tests are the best resources to prepare better for the exam. If you go through previous year papers, it will help you know the exam level for Paper 1 and Paper 2. You will get to know type and nature of questions asked from your subject in paper 2. Also, you can analyse topic-wise weightage from past 10 years papers.

NTA activates online mock test links on its website. You must solve those official mock tests as it will give you an idea on how to solve actual UGC NET paper. In this article, we have provided links to download UGC NET previous year papers.

Table of Contents

• UGC NET 2023 Papers
• UGC NET 2022 Papers
• UGC NET Dec 2021-2022 Papers
• UGC NET 2021 Papers
• UGC NET 2020 Papers
• UGC NET 2019 Papers
• UGC NET 2018 Papers
• UGC NET 2017 Papers
• UGC NET 2015-16 Papers
• UGC NET 2014 Papers
• UGC NET 2012-13 Papers
• UGC NET 2011 Papers
• UGC NET 2010 Papers
• UGC NET Paper I (2004-2010)

UGC NET December 2023 Question Paper: Download PDF

UGC NET December 2022 Subject-wise Papers; Download PDF

UGC NET December 2021 And June 2022 Question Papers with Answer Key PDFs

CBSE UGC NET Previous Year Question Papers 2021

Candidates are advised to download the latest Paper I Question paper from the link below:-

UGC NET 2021 December Question Papers with Answer Key PDFs

UGC NET 2019 Question Papers with Answer Key PDFs

The candidates preparing for CBSE UGC NET must check the questions papers and answers of Paper I & Paper II given in the links below.

UGC NET 2018 December Question Papers with Answer Key PDFs

UGC NET 2018 June Question Papers with Answer Key PDFs

UGC NET 2017 June Question Papers with Answer Key PDFs

UGC NET 2017 December Question Papers with Answer Key PDFs

CBSE UGC NET Previous Year Question Papers- 2015-16

CBSE UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper 2014

Candidates can also download Year 2014 (Paper I) question paper from the link mentioned below:-

Download CBSE UGC NET Year 2014 (Paper I) June Paper

CBSE UGC NET Previous Year Question Papers 2012-13

Candidates are advised to download the latest Paper I Question paper from the link Below:-

Candidates can also download the CBSE UGC NET Paper-II (December/June) of 2012 – 13 from the links mentioned below:-

CBSE UGC NET Question Paper 2011

Subject Wise Question Paper-Paper II (June)

Candidates can also download the CBSE UGC NET Paper-II (June) of 2011 from the links mentioned below:-

Subject Wise Question Paper-Paper II (December)

Candidates can also download the CBSE UGC NET Paper-II (December) of 2011 from the links mentioned below:-

CBSE UGC NET Question Paper 2010

Candidates can also download the CBSE UGC NET Paper-II (June) of 2010 from the links mentioned below:-

Candidates can also download the CBSE UGC NET Paper-II (December) of 2010 from the links mentioned below:-

Download UGC NET Previous Year Question Papers (Paper I) (2004-2010)

Candidates can download the UGC NET Previous Year Question Paper PDF here on both smartphones and computers:

UGC NET : Research Aptitude - Basic Concept of Research

Ugc net : logical reasoning - structure of arguments, ugc net : people, development, and environment - environment and resources, daily quiz: bed teaching aptitude (gender), daily quiz: ctet: maths (ratio, profit and percentage), daily quiz: ctet: environment studies (environment awareness), daily quiz: ctet: maths (number system), daily quiz: ctet: prt-tgt cdp (personality), daily quiz: ctet: prt-tgt cdp (socialization), daily quiz: up police: mental ability (direction sense), daily quiz: rrb ntpc: lr- analogy, daily quiz: rrb ntpc: (series), daily quiz: ctet: world geography, csir-ugc (net) chemical science full test 2, csir-ugc (net) chemical science full test 1, csir-ugc (net) mathematical science full test 1, csir-ugc (net) life science full test 2, csir-ugc (net) life science full test 1, ugc net paper 2: law full test 5, ugc net paper 2: law full test 4, ugc net paper 2: law full test 3, ugc net paper 2: law full test 2, ugc net paper 2: law full test 1, ugc net paper 1: held on 6th dec 2023 shift 2, ugc net library & information science paper 2 - 13 mar 2023 (shift 2) official paper, ugc net library & information science paper 2 - 13 jun 2023 (shift 2) official paper, ugc net library & information science paper 2 - 13 dec 2023 official paper, ugc net paper 1: held on 6th dec 2023 shift 1, csir-ugc (net) mathematical science: held on (28 dec 2023), csir ugc (net) mathematical science: held on (7 june 2023), gate mathematics (ma) : held on (11 feb 2023), csir-ugc (net) life science: held on (6 june 2023 shift 2), csir-ugc (net) life science: held on (6 june 2023 shift 1).

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Ugc net admit card june 2024 out (soon): exam on june 18.

UGC NET Admit Card 2024 for June cycle is going to be released soon by the NTA on behalf of the University Grants Commission. You will be abe to downl..

UGC NET June 2024 City Intimation Slip Out; Download Link Here

UGC NET City Intimation Slip 2024 has been released on the official website- ugcnet.nta.ac.in. You should visit the official website to download it th..

CSIR NET City Intimation Slip 2024 Out (Soon): Check Details Here

CSIR NET City Intimation Slip 2024 will be released soon on the official website- csirnet.nta.ac.in. You should visit the official website to download..

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UGC NET 2018 Question Paper with Answers

Ugc net july 2018 question paper of exam held on 08 jul 2018.

UGC NET Question Papers are provided here.

• UGC NET Question Paper 2018 (Paper 1)
• UGC NET Question Paper 2018 (Paper 1) in Hindi
• UGC NET Adult Education Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Anthropology Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Arab Culture and Islamic Studies Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Archaeology Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Buddhist Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Commerce Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Comparative Study of Religions Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Criminology Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Dance Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Defence and Strategic Studies Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Drama Theatre Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Economics Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Education Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Electronic Science Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET English Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Forensic Science Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Geography Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Hindi Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Home Science Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Human Rights and Duties Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Indian Culture Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET International Area Studies Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Karnatik Music Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Law Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Management Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Percussion Instruments Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Philosophy Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Physical Education Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Political Science Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Population Studies Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Prakrit Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Psychology Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Public Administration Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Sanskrit Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Social Medicine Community Health Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Social Work Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Tourism Administration and Management Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Women Studies Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET Yoga Question Paper 2018
• UGC NET History Question Paper 2018

More Papers

UGC NET 08 July 2018 Answer key

UGC NET Answer key is provided here.

UGC NET July 2018 Question Paper of Exam held on 22 Jul 2018

UGC NET Question Papers are provided here

UGC NET 22 July 2018 Answer key

UGC NET Question Papers

CBSE UGC NET 2017 Question Paper with Answers

Ugc net 2020 question paper with answers, leave a reply cancel reply.

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AP TET 2018 Question Paper with Answer PDF – Download Here

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UGC NET 2018: UGC NET Paper-I Solved Question Paper: December, 2018

• June 23, 2022
• NET Solved Question Paper-I , UGC NET Library Science

UGC NET Solved Question Paper-I: Examination – December, 2018

1. Which among the following is the best field of study to improve the ability of students Experiment and analyse? 1. History 2. Languages 3. Economics 4. Science Answer: (4) Science

2. Which among the following reflects best the quality of teaching in a classroom? 1. Through the use of many teaching aids in the classroom 2. Through the quality of questions asked by students in classroom 3. Through full attendance in the classroom 4. Through observation of silence by the students in classroom Answer: (2) Through the quality of questions asked by students in classroom

3. Artifacts that arise and affect the internal validity in research are: (a) History (b) Randomization (c) Maturity (d) Instrumentation (e) Experimental mortality (f) Matching

1. (a), (b), (c) and (d) 2. (b), (c), (d) and (f) 3. (a), (c), (d) and (e) 4. (d), (e), (f) and (b) Answer: (3) (a), (c), (d) and (e)

4. Formulation of a research problem depends on: (a) What is the object behind the researcher’s choice? (b) What are the specific questions? (c) What is the conceptual model? (d) What negative factors to research upon? (e) Reasons for unlimiting the study. (f) Construction of hypotheses.

1. (a), (c), (e) and (f) 2. (c), (d), (e) and (f) 3. (b), (c), (d) and (e) 4. (a), (b), (c) and (f) Answer: (4) (a), (b), (c) and (f)

5. Among the following which one is not an instructional material? 1. Audio podcast 2. YouTube video 3. Printed study guide 4. Overhead projector Answer: (4) Overhead projector

6. Suppose as a teacher you are training your students in public speaking and debate. Which among the following is most difficult to develop among the students? 1. Control over emotions 2. Concept formulation 3. Using / selecting appropriate language 4. Voice modulation Answer: (1) Control over emotions

7. Which among the following is best advantage of choice based credit system? 1. Shift in focus from teacher-centric to student-centric education 2. Improving classroom attendance 3. Helping teacher to complete syllabus on time 4. Reducing examination anxiety among students Answer: (1) Shift in focus from teacher-centric to student-centric education

8. The components of a research design are: (a) Comparison (b) Control (c) Reactivity (d) Manipulation (e) Non representativeness (f) Generalization

1. (c), (d), (e) and (f) 2. (a), (c), (e) and (f) 3. (b), (c), (d) and (e) 4. (a), (b), (d) and (f) Answer: (4) (a), (b), (d) and (f)

9. The four major operations in scientific research are: (a) Demonstration of co-variance (b) Elimination of spurious relations (c) Sequencing in terms of time order (d) Self-education (e) Operationalization of personal choice (f) Theorization

Codes: 1. (a), (b), (c) and (d) 2. (c), (d), (e) and (f) 3. (a), (b), (c) and (f) 4. (b), (c), (d) and (e) Answer: (3)

10. A variable that is manipulated is known as: 1. Dependent variable 2. Control variable 3. Independent variable 4. Confounding variable Answer: (3) Independent variable

Read the following passage carefully and answer questions 11 to 15:

Singapore has long advocated for India to take up its role as an integral part of the region. It is gratifying to see how Asean – India relations have grown during the past 25 years. In 1991, when the Cold War ended and India began its economic liberalization, Singapore saw an opportunity to deepen ties and build on its historical and cultural links with the Asian region. Singapore pushed for India to become a full Asean dialogue partner in 1995 and join the EAS in 1995 and since then, Asean – India ties have strengthened. All in all, around 30 platforms for co-operation exist, including seven ministerial dialogues and the Annual Leader Summit. However, there is scope for more and it is a must. For instance, there are tremendous opportunities in enhancing physical and digital connectivity between India and Asean. Asean is committed to strengthening land, air and sea linkages with India. These linkages will enhance people-to-people flows, as well as boost business, investment and tourism. The India-Myanmar Thailand trilateral highway will connect India’s Northeast to mainland Southeast Asia. While one can y directly between India and several Asean countries, there is still much room to expand air links to support growing business and tourism. Beyond physical linkages, digital connectivity, is the new frontier in the Fourth Industrial Revolution. India has made great progress in innovation, Start-ups and digital inclusion. There are opportunities to apply initiatives such as Aadhaar in our region. E-commerce and FinTech are two other areas potential collaboration. As an economic hub, Singapore can serve as a springboard to launch these ideas to Southeast Asia and beyond. India’s role in Asean should be anchored by growing economic ties with Singapore. The economic integration involving 16 countries with one-third of global GDP and trade will create an integrated Asian market.

11. Who can be India’s Launchpad for an integrated Asian market as per the passage? 1. Southwest Asia 2. Thailand 3. Singapore 4. Myanmar Answer: (3) Singapore

12. The areas of collaboration between India and Asian are: (a) FinTech (b) Aadhaar (c) e-commerce (d) Digital backwardness (e) Trilateral highways (f) Fourth industrial revolution

1. (b), (c), (d) and (e) 2. (a), (b), (c) and (d) 3. (a), (c), (e) and (f) 4. (c), (d), (e) and (f) Answer: (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

13. The commitment of Asian with India is: 1. Offer political platforms 2. More and more dialogues 3. Improving transport links 4. Hold leadership summits Answer: (3) Improving transport links

14. What is needed to encourage tourism between India and Asian? 1. Waterways 2. Innovation 3. Air links 4. Start-ups Answer: (3) Air links

15. What prompted Singapore to opt for stronger ties with India? 1. Historical past 2. End of cold war 3. geo-political equations 4. Economic liberalization in India Answer: (4) Economic liberalization in India

16. The next term in the series 0, 1, 9, 36, 100, ______ is: 1. 216 2. 164 3. 196 4. 225 Answer: (4) 225

17. In the digital era, there is a fear that classroom communication may result in: 1. Passive adaptation 2. Quick adaptation 3. Stimulation 4. Over-stimulation Answer: (4) Over-stimulation

18. Under which of the conditions an argument may be valid? Select the correct answer from the code given below:

Statements : (a) When its conclusion and premises are true (b) Even when its conclusion and one or more of its premises are false (c) Only when its conclusion is true

1. (c) alone 2. (a) and (b) 3. (a) and (c) 4. (a) alone Answer: (2) (a) and (b)

19. Jenifer’s father-in-law is my brother. Helen is a grand-daughter of my mother. How is Helen related to Jenifer? 1. Daughter-in-law 2. Sister 3. Sister-in-law 4. Mother Answer: (3) Sister-in-law

20. Truth and falsity are attributes of: 1. Debates 2. Propositions 3. Opinions 4. Arguments Answer: (2) Propositions

21. Negative criticism as an element of classroom communication will lead to: (a) External sympathy (b) Justification (c) Defensiveness (d) De-motivation (e) Supportive listening (f) Confrontational empathy

1. (b), (c) and (d) 2. (d), (e) and (f) 3. (a), (b) and (c) 4. (c), (d) and (e) Answer: (1)

22. The rhetorical approach in classroom communication considers teachers as _____ agents of students. 1. Influencing 2. Non-Official 3. Academic 4. Official Answer: (1) Influencing

23. Assertion (A): Teacher communication is central to classroom management. Reason (R): Teacher communication behaviors should not be used to regulate the classroom Behavior of students.

1. (A) is false, but (R) is true. 2. Both (A) and (R) are true. 3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 4. (A) is true, but (R) is false Answer: (4) (A) is true, but (R) is false

24. Among the following, there are two statements which can’t be true together, but can be false together. Select the code that represents them.

Statements : (a) All poets are dreamers. (b) No poets are dreamers. (c) Some poets are dreamers. (d) Some poets are not dreamers.

1. (a) and (b) 2. (b) and (d) 3. (a) and (d) 4. (c) and (d) Answer: (1) (a) and (b)

25. Non-verbal communication is considered: 1. Formal 2. Culture-free 3. Informal 4. Precise Answer: (3)

26. Given below are two premises (a) and (b). Four conclusions are drawn from them. Select the code that states validly drawn conclusion(s). [Taking the premises individually or jointly]

Premises: (a) All judges are lawyers. (b) No doctors are lawyers.

Conclusions : (1) No lawyers are doctors. (2) No doctor are judges. (3) All lawyers are judges. (4) Some doctor are judges.

1. (1) and (3) 2. (1) and (2) 3. (1) and (4) 4. (2) and (3) Answer: (2) (1) and (2)

27. If ABODE is coded as ADRHJ, then the code for AGRO will be: 1. AIVX 2. AIUS 3. AIST 4. AVCD Answer: (2) AIUS

28. Choose the word which is different from the rest: 1. Mount Kilimanjaro 2. Shivalik Hills 3. Aravali Hills 4. Nilgiri Hills Answer: (1) Mount Kilimanjaro

29. Which one of the following can be validly inferred from the proposition – “all animals are wild”? 1. No non-animals are wild. 2. Some animals are not wild. 3. No animals are wild. 4. Some animals are wild. Answer: (4) Some animals are wild.

30. The next term in the letter series DEF, HIJ, LMN, PQR, TUV, ______ is 1. XYZ 2. WYZ 3. WXY 4. YZA Answer: (1) XYZ

Based on the below table, answer question No. 31, 32, and 33.

31. How many States have at least 50% or more electrified villages? 1. 3 2. 2 3. 4 4. 1 Answer: (3) 4

32. Which State has twice the percentage of electrified villages in comparison to State D? 1. State A 2. State C 3. State B 4. State D Answer: (2) State C

33. In the year 2000, the total number of villages in State D was 15,000. In the year 2010, the total number of villages had increased to 20,000 out of which 10,000 villages were yet to be electrified. The % of villages not electrified in 2010 in state D has thus_______. 1. Not enough data 2. Gone up 3. Come down 4. Cannot be computed Answer: (3) Come down

Based on the Table given below, answer question no. 34 and 35

34. If the population for state F is 2.6 lakhs, what is the population below education index? 1. 51000 lakhs 2. 3900 lakhs 3. 0.39 lakhs 4. 49000 lakhs Answer: (3) 0.39 lakhs

35. If the total population of state was 5 lakhs while the population in state B was 2 lakhs, the number of people below education index will be: 1. Cannot be calculated 2. Higher in State A 3. Equal in State A and B 4. Higher in State B Answer: (2) Higher in State A

36. The output quality of a printer is measured by: 1. Dots per cm 2. Dots per inch 3. Dots per mm 4. Digits per inch Answer: (2) Dots per inch

37. _________ denotes an error in a computer program. 1. Bug 2. Virus 3. Spam 4. Bit Answer: (1) Bug

38. In which part of India, the tropical Western Ghats are situated? 1. Rajasthan 2. Gujarat 3. Punjab 4. Kerala Answer: (3) Punjab

39. The University Grants Commission has a scheme for “Human Rights and Values in Education”. Under this scheme, which statement is incorrect among the following for ‘Human Rights and Duties Education’ component 1. To encourage research activities 2. To sensitize the citizens so that the norms and values of human rights are realized. 3. To establish value and wellness centers in schools 4. To develop interaction between society and educational institutions. Answer: (3) To establish value and wellness centers in schools

40. The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason(s)? (a) Thermal difference between land and water. (b) Variations in altitude between continents and oceans. (c) Presence of strong winds in the interior. (d) Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coastal region.

1. (a) and (b) only 2. (b) and (c) only 3. (a) only 4. (a), (b), (c) and (d) Answer: (3) (a) only

41. The University Grants Commission (UGC) was formally inaugurated on 28 December 1953 by whom among the following? 1. Sh. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad 2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad 3. Mrs. Indira Gandhi 4. Dr. S. Radhakrishan Answer: (1) Sh. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad

42. A source of renewable power which can be developed with minimum cost is: 1. Wind mills 2. Tidal power 3. Biomass power 4. Geothermal energy Answer: (3)

43. A small text le stored on user’s computer by some websites in order to recognize and keep track of user’s preferences is called: 1. Cookie 2. Report 3. Log 4. History Answer: (1) Cookie

44 How much carbon is being added to the atmosphere by burning of fossil fuels? 1. 6-9 billion tons 2. 9-12 billion tons 3. 4-6 billion tons 4. 2-6 billion tons Answer: (1) 6-9 billion tons

45. Natural vegetation of an area needs to be preserved for the future, mainly for the purpose of: 1. Providing habitat for birds 2. Preventing soil erosion 3. Providing material for breeding new species 4. Study by scientists Answer: (3) Providing material for breeding new species

46. In which year Education Commission under the Chairmanship of Dr. D.S. Kothari was set up? 1. 1960 2. 1955 3. 1952 4. 1964 Answer: (4) 1964

47. Which of the following was launched in 2013 with the purpose to provide strategic funding to eligible state higher educational institutions? 1. Rashtriya Madhyamik Shiksha Abhiyan 2. All India Council for Technical Education 3. Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan 4. Sarva Shiksha Abhiyan Answer: (3) Rashtriya Uchchatar Shiksha Abhiyan

48. Which of the following are audio le formats? (a) .wav (b) .aac (c) .wmv (d) .fiv

Codes : 1. (b) and (c) 2. (a) and (b) 3. (a) and (d) 4. (c) and (d) Answer: (2) (a) and (b)

49. In a computer, if 8 bits are used to specify address in memory, the total number of addresses will be: 1. 8 2. 256 3. 216 4. 512 Answer: (2) 256

50. The National Knowledge Commission (NKC) was established in which year? 1. 1998 2. 2007 3. 2000 4. 2005 Answer: (4) 2005

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GATE 2018- Solved Question papers of all Subjects

All subject question papers and solutions of gate 2018.

Practicing with previous year question papers will help you to prepare and manage your examination in more effective ways, we are giving you the GATE 2018 Question papers and solutions in the links below to help you in your GATE preparations.

The GATE Exam

Qualifying in Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) is a mandatory requirement for seeking admission assistance to:

(i) Master’s programs and direct Doctoral programs in Engineering/Technology/Architecture and (ii) Doctoral programs in relevant branches of Science, in the institutions supported by the MHRD and other  Government agencies.

GATE 2018 was organised by IIT Guwahati on 3rd,  4th, 10th & 11th of February 2018.

GATE 2018 Question Paper Pattern

GATE 2018 would contain questions of two different types in all the papers:

(i) Multiple Choice Questions (MCQ) carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all the papers and sections.  These questions are objective in nature, and each will have a choice of four answers, out of which the candidate has to select (mark) the correct answer.

Negative Marking for Wrong Answers: For a wrong answer chosen in a MCQ, there will be  negative marking. For 1-mark MCQ, 1/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong answer. Likewise, for 2-mark MCQ, 2/3 mark will be deducted for a wrong answer.

(ii) Numerical Answer Type (NAT) Questions carrying 1 or 2 marks each in all the papers and sections. For these questions, the answer is a signed real number, which needs to be entered by the candidate using the virtual numeric keypad on the monitor (keyboard of the computer will be disabled). No choices will be shown for these type of questions. The answer can be a number such as 10 or -10 (an integer only). The answer may be in decimals as well, for example, 10.1 (one decimal) or 10.01 (two decimals) or -10.001 (three decimals). These questions will be mentioned with, up to which decimal places, the candidates need to make an answer. Also, an appropriate range will be considered while evaluating the numerical answer type questions so that the candidate is not penalized due to the usual round-off errors. Wherever required and possible, it is better to give NAT answer up to a maximum of three decimal places.

There is NO negative marking for a wrong answer in NAT questions.

GATE 2018- Marking  Scheme

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ISC Physical Education Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12

February 9, 2024 by Prasanna

ISC Physical Education Previous Year Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 12

Section-A (40 Marks) Answer any five questions.

Question 1. Explain the role of physical education in the development of personality of an individual. [8] Answer: Personality represents those characteristics of the person that account for consistent patterns of behaviour. Broadly, four factors influence how an individual respond in any given situation the genetic make-up, past experience, the nature of the situation in which he/she find themselves and the free will. Personality development means the process in which an individual’s attitude, discipline, helpfulness, team spirit, patience, unity, friendship etc., grows.

(a) Attitude :

• Physical Education helps an individual to develop the attitude of competition against themselves for their betterment.
• Physical Education helps the individual to develop an attitude of learning from their failure and success rather than getting too much elated about their success and depressed of their failure.
• Physical Education helps in developing an attitude of equanimity at the time of success and failure and also develops an attitude to pursue excellence.
• Physical Education develops an attitude to respect sports, other participants, coaches, official and themselves.

(b) Discipline :

• Physical Education helps in developing learned effective skills for dealing with conflict, difficult opponents, and other people when they are negative or oppositional during sports competition and thereby an individual gets disciplined.
• Individual realizes through sports and games the value of being systematic, consistent and punctual as these qualities help the individual to develop his sporting ability. Accepting these qualities help the individual to become disciplined.

(c) Helpfulness :

• While playing sports and games an individual learns the importance of helping others. For developing bonding one has to assist, motivate and cooperate.
• The senior players get respect from junior players when they help the junior players to develop their skill by sharing their experience.
• The quality of helpfulness is required during training session and sharing of equipment.
• It is required during competition when an individual’s performance is getting affected.
• Through sports and games an individual understands one’s success is not only the result of one’s effort but also due to the help received from coach, team members, family etc.

(d) Team Spirit:

• Nature of sports is such that there is one common goal to be achieved by each member of a team and that goal can be called as team goal and that is winning. This common goal develops the quality of team spirit.
• To win as a team a sense of respect for each member of team is required. Apart from sense of respect for team member there is a requirement of giving priority to team’s achievement than individuals. This thought and act of one while playing sports and game develops the quality of team spirit.

(e) Patience :

• Individual while playing sports and games understands the importance of patience. One needs to regularly do hard work and has to be patient for the development of performance.
• One needs to adjust with the team members. In order to adjust with others one needs to have patience. Applying strategies requires patience. For developing the quality of consistency one needs to be patient.

(f) Unity :

• Common goal develops unity. The team which lacks unity has more chances to get defeated than the team which has unity.
• Each player in the team may have different responsibility and each member getting assistance and motivation to fulfill their responsibility from other team members develops a sense of unity among team members.

(g) Friendship :

• Quality of helpfulness, sacrifice, assistance, motivation, support and respect among the players develops the quality of friendship.
• Matches between countries help in developing the quality of friendship among players of different country.

Question 2, Explain briefly what is meant by interval training? Write the method of conducting interval training. [8] Answer: Interval Training Method : This training is useful for the development of endurance. There are repeated sessions or interval of relatively intense exercise. Each interval is followed by a period of incomplete recovery. If one is running 400m intervals on a track and it takes approximately 90 seconds to complete each run then the recovery period between the intervals should be at least 90 seconds. This training develops cardiorespiratory endurance. In high-intensity interval training there is a risk of athlete getting injury. During the interval period the heart rate may reach to 180 beats/minutes followed by a recovery period. When the heart rate in recovery period comes down to 120 beats/minute then the next interval period should start.

Variables which decides the effect of interval method are :

• Speed of work
• Duration of work
• Duration of recovery
• Number of repetition
• Nature of recovery

Interval method is of two type :

• Intensive Interval Method: When the intensity of the activity is 80-90% of the maximum speed at which an individual can run then it is called intensive interval method.
• Extensive Interval Method: When the intensity of the activity is 70-80% of the maximum speed at which an individual can run then it is called extensive interval method. On the basis of duration interval training may

be classified into three types : Short interval method, medium interval method and long interval method.

Method of Conducting Interval Method :

• Before starting interval method one should have undergone a period of continuous running.
• Maximum heart rate of the individual doing interval training should be noted. Generally maximum heart rate is found by the formulae 220 minus age. Maximum heart rate will help to find the target heart rate that the individual has to run during the interval.
• Number of repetition of intervals should be decided after taking into account the athletes age and level of practice.
• Improvement in performance can be done by changing the variable. It would be better to change one variable at a time.
• See that the surface of running is flat.
• Warm-up and cooling down should be done properly before starting interval training.
• If the heart rate does not come back to 120 beats/minutes within a period of time it is expected i.e., around 90 seconds then it should be understood that workload is difficult for the individual and the workload should be adjusted.
• Have a heart rate monitor as it will help in increasing and decreasing intensity according to heart rate, depending on which interval one is.
• Do not over exert while training.

Question 3. Write a note on the Sports Authority of India (SAI) giving its objectives. [8] Answer: The Sports Authority of India (SAI), was set up on 25th January, 1984 as a Society registered under Societies Act, 1860 with the objective of promotion of Sports and Games. It comes under Department of Sports, Govt, of India. SAI head office is in Jawaharlal Nehru Sports Complex, New Delhi.

SAI is responsible for the management of the following:

• One high altitude training centre called Netaji Subhash High Altitude Training Centre (Shilaroo, Himachal Pradesh).
• Two SAI Sports Academic Institutions (NSNIS Patiala and LNCPE Thiruvananthapuram).
• Five stadiums at New Delhi ( Jawaharlal Nehru Sports Complex, Indira Gandhi Sports Complex, Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium, Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Swimming Pool Complex, Dr. Kami Singh Shooting Ranges).
• Ten SAI Regional Centres (SRC) are located at (Chandigarh, Sonipat, Lucknow, Guwahati, Imphal, Kolkata, Bhopal, Bengaluru, Mumbai and Gandhi-nagar).
• Fourteen “Centre of Excellences” at different parts of India.
• Twenty “Special Area Games” (SAG) at different parts of India.
• Fifty-six “Sports Training Centres” (STC) at different parts of India.

Objectives of SAI:

• Talent Scouting at micro level and nurturing talent towards excellence.
• Training and International Exposure.
• Support Training with Scientific and Sports equipment and scientific personnel.
• Monitor and enhance performance with a scientific evaluation system.
• Training and preparation of national teams.
• Sports Infrastructure development and maintenance.
• Maintenance and up gradation of 4 stadia complexes and a shooting range in Delhi.
• To produce coaches and physical educationists of high caliber in different disciplines of sports to broad base sports.

Question 4. What is meant by a tournament? Explain the various types of tournaments. Draw a fixture of 11 teams on the knock-out basis. [8] Answer: Tournament : It is series of competition between different teams. It helps to decide the positions like first, second, third etc. For a tournament to take place there should be minimum two teams.

Various Types of Tournaments : Tourna-ments are of different types like Knock-out, League, and League cum knock-out, challenge etc.

Knock-out Tournament : In a knock-out tournament if a team loses a single match it will be out of the tournament. Only the winners move to the next round of matches. Formulae to find the number of matches in a knock-out tournament = n – 1 where n = number teams participating in the tournament. The number of matches in a knock-out tournament of 17 teams =17-1 = 16 matches.

League Tournament: In a league tournament every team participating in the tournament has to compete with every other team. Winners are decided on the basis of the points acquired after all the competition. For each win a team may be awarded 2 point, draw 1 point and for a loss no point is awarded. Formulae to find the number of matches in a league tournament = n (n – l)/2. Where n = number teams participating in the tournament. The number of matches in a league tournament of 9 teams = 9 (9 – 1) /2 = 36 matches.

League cum Knock-out Tournament : In a league cum knock-out tournament competition is conducted in two phase. In the first phase competition is conducted in the form of a league and through this competition a pre-decided number of teams are selected on the basis of points secured from the top. In the second phase pre-decided number of teams selected from the league matches will participate in a knock-out tournament and from this first and second teams are decided.

Fixture of 11 teams on the knock-out basis:

Question 5. Explain the term Disability. State the various services available for the rehabilitation of the disabled, in India. t8] Answer: Disability : Disability means an inability to do work. It is a state of an individual when he/she is not able to work efficiently. It may be present from birth, or occur during a person’s lifetime. It may be physical, cognitive, mental, sensory, emotional, developmental, or combination of these. Disabilities cover impairments, activity limitations, and participation restrictions. Impairment is a problem in body function or structure; an activity limitation is a difficulty encountered by an individual in executing a task or action; while a participation restriction is a problem experienced by an individual in involvement with the life situations. Thus, disability is a complex phenomenon, reflecting an interaction between features of a person’s body and the environment of the society where he or she lives.

Various services available for the rehabilitation of the disabled India :

• Rehabilitation Council of India, New Delhi : Regulation of training policies and programs in Person with disability (PWD) rehabilitation.
• National Institute of Rehabilitation Training and Research, Cuttack, Odisha: coordinates training for rehabilitation personnel, service delivery programs for rehabilitation, vocational training, placement and rehabilitation of persons with mobility disability.
• Society for Rehabilitation and Research of the Handicapped, New Delhi : A organization of Person with disability (PWD) rehabilitation, Co-education school for age group 16-30 with hearing impairment.
• Association for Advancement and Rehabilitation of Handicapped, New Delhi: A organization of Person with disability (PWD) rehabilitation, Social awareness and occupational center for persons with intellectual disability.
• Amar Joyti Research and Rehabilitation Center, New Delhi formed in 1981: A organization for Person with disability.
• Indian Red Cross Society established in 1920. It has around 400 branches all over India.
• All India Blind Relief Society formed in 1946 coordinates with various institutions of blind. It works for the welfare of blind.
• Artificial limb Manufacturing Corporation in Kanpur provides artificial limbs to disabled.
• Kamayani School for Mentally Handicapped, Pune, formed in 1964 provides work and training for handicapped persons.
• National Institute for the Mentally Handicapped, Secunderabad, provides training and rehabilitation for persons with learning disability.

Role of various individuals in prevention of sports-related accidents To prevent sports-related accidents in a school, the players and physical education teacher has a major role.

Things to be performed by a Player to prevent sports-related accidents :

• Warm up properly before entering the playground.
• Use safety equipment prescribed’for a game.
• Play the game with concentration and not carelessly.
• Coordinate and cooperate with your team members so that you have a good rapport with your team members.’ Unsportsman like behaviour should not be shown against the opponents.
• Have right frame of mind to play the game. If you are sad and you wish not to play then do not enter the court.
• If there is an injury, give proper rest and later rehabilitation exercise till the injury has healed completely and then start playing.
• Learn the correct skill and execute it in right manner.
• Do not try to exert more than your limitation.

Things to be performed by Physical Education teacher or coach to prevent sports related accidents:

• Have medical checkup for students before including them for training.
• Test their performance and decide their schedule.
• Start with simple skills and then move to advanced skills.
• Ensure that ground is neatly marked and levelled, surroundings are neat and clean before starting training.
• Divide the class into small groups and engage them in variety of sports to prevent overcrowding in a particular ground.
• Ensure that first aid kit is carried to the ground to attend to an injury as quickly as possible.
• Ensure that students are playing in proper playing kit and using the desired safety equipment.

Question 7. Write short notes on the following : [8] (a) Splint (b) Personal hygiene Answer: (a) Splint : A splint is a device used for support or immobilization of a limb or the spine. It can be used in multiple situations, including temporary immobilization of potentially broken bones or damaged joints and support for joints during activity. Splinting immobilizes injured extremities and prevents further injury, decreases pain and bleeding and allows healing to begin. Splint is most commonly used during fractures, dislocations and sprains.

Advantages:

• Stabilization of an extremity fracture with a splint will preserve proper bone alignment and alleviate discomfort.
• After reduction of a dislocated joint, anatomical positioning is maintained by application of a splint.
• Splints may be used to give desired . position at rest and functional positioning to the involved active joint.

Temporary splints can be used to alleviate pain and to prevent additional injury during transport to an emergency department or while awaiting evaluation by a specialist.

Contraindication:

• For injuries that are prone to severe swelling, even a splint can become restrictive as the swelling increases. Extra padding may be placed under the splint if extensive swelling is anticipated, allowing room for expansion.
• When neurovascular compromise is present as a result of a fracture or dislocation, splints should not be placed without first attempting immediate reduction.
• Use appropriate universal precautions for potential exposure to body fluids when open wounds are present.
• Whenever possible, use sheets or pads to protect the patient’s clothing during splint application.

(b) Personal Hygiene : It is the basic concept of cleaning, grooming and it is the first step to good health. It helps to protect ourselves and maintain good health. Personal hygiene is learnt from the family and society one lives in.

Advantages of having Personal Hygiene : Personal hygiene includes different habits like washing hands and brushing teeth which keep bacteria, viruses and fungus far away from our bodies. These habits helps to protect mental health and to have a feeling good about one self.

Disadvantages of not looking after Personal Hygiene: People who do not take care of their personal hygiene like wearing dirty clothes or having bad breath, may find it difficult to get accepted by society and may get prone to many diseases (physical and mental).

Some of the Personal Hygiene practices are:

• Washing and combing hair.
• Washing carefully around the eyes and avoiding rubbing of eyes, particularly with dirty hands or clothes.
• Washing skin frequently to remove sweat, dirt and dead skin cells. Use soap to remove dirty matter from skin.
• Washing hands well, particularly before preparing food, before eating, after excreting, after handling dirty clothes, before and after cleaning and treating sores and wounds, after handling animals and after handling chemicals at work or in the home.
• Keeping nails clean and trim.
• Wash the feet and removing the dirt and sweat from between the toes.

Section-B (30 Marks)

• Select any two games from this Section.
• Answer any three of the five subparts (a), (b), (c), (d) and (e) from each of the two games selected by you.
• Each subpart is for 5 marks.

Question 8. [3 x 5] (a) What is meant by kick-off, in the game of football? State four situations of a kick of in the game. [5] (b) Explain the following terms : [5] (i) Offside (ii) Dropped-ball (c) Write any five duties of a referee during the game. [5] (d) In the game of football, what is meant by added time? State the difference between added time and extra time. [5] (e) What is meant by throw-in? Explain the process of throw-in. [5] Answer 8. (a) Kick-off is the method of starting and, in some cases, restarting play in the game of football. Four situations of kick-off in a game of football are :

• At the start of the match.
• After a goal has been scored.
• At the start of the second half of the match.
• At the start of each period of extra time.

(b) (i) Offside : Offside is one of the laws of association football which states that a player is in an offside position if any of their body part except the hands and arms is in the opponents’ half of the pitch and closer to the opponents’ goal line than both the ball and the second-last opponent (not necessarily the goalkeeper). Being in an offside position is not an offence in itself; a player who was in an offside position at the moment the ball last touched, or was played by a team mate, must then become involved in active play in the opinion of the referee, in order for an offence to occur. When the offside offence occurs, the referee stops play and awards an indirect free kick to the defending team from the place where the offending player became involved in active play.

(ii) Dropped-Ball: It is a method of restarting the play. It is designed to offer no advantage to either side, generally being awarded when play has been stopped due to reasons other than normal game-play or misconduct.

The referee drops the ball at the position where it was when play was stopped, unless play was stopped inside the goal area in which the ball is dropped on the goal area line which is parallel to the goal line at the point nearest to where the ball was when play was stopped. The ball is in play when it touches the ground. Any number of players may contest a dropped ball (including the goalkeepers); the referee cannot decide who may contest a dropped ball or its outcome.

(c) Five duties of referee :

• Enforces the laws of the game.
• Control the match in co-operation with the assistant referees.
• Acts as time keeper and keep a record of the match.
• Restart the match after it has been stopped.
• Takes disciplinary action against player, guilty of cautionable and sending-off offenses.

(d) Additional Time : Time allowed at the end of each half for time Tost’ because of substitutions, injuries, disciplinary action, goal celebration etc.

Extra Time:

• A method of trying to decide the outcome of a match involving two equal additional periods of play not exceeding 15 minutes each.
• Extra time starts with a kick off.
• During extra time, a short drinks break: is permitted at half time of extra time.
• Extra time has two equal half with teams changing ends in between.
• Extra time is given for deciding the winner by the referee after the end of normal duration of play and additional time.

Additional Time:

• Time allowed at the end of each half for time ‘lost’ because of substitutions, injuries, disciplinary action, goal celebration etc.
• Additional time does not start with a kick-off.
• There is no drinks break.
• Duration of additional time is not fixed and there is no division or change of court during additional time.
• Fourth official will indicate the minimum duration of additional time the referee intends to play at the end of each half (including extra time).

(e) A throw-in is a method of restarting the play. A throw-in is awarded to the opponents of the player who last touched the ball when the whole of the ball passes over the touchline, either on the ground or in the air.

A goal cannot be scored directly from a throw-in :

• If the ball enters the opponents’ goal – a goal kick is awarded.
• If the ball enters the thrower’s goal – a comer kick is awarded.

The procedure of Throw-in: At the moment of delivering the ball, the thrower must:

• Face the field of play.
• Have part of each foot on the touchline or on the ground outside the touchline.
• Throw the ball with both hands from behind and over the head from the point where it left the field of play.

Question 9. [3 x 5] (a) Explain follow-on with reference to the game of cricket. [5] (b) Mention any five occasions when the umpire calls or signals for a no-ball. [5] (c) Explain the following : [5] (i) Sledging (ii) IPL (d) Explain the techniques of wicket keeping. [5] (e) Mention five front foot drives played in cricket. [5] Answer: (a) Follow-on is a term used in test matches. The side which bats first if leads by at least 200 runs then they shall have the option of asking the other side to follow their innings. The same option shall be available in matches of shorter duration with the minimum leads as follows : 150 runs in a match of 3 or 4 days; 100 runs in a 2-days match; 75 runs in a 1-day match.

When all the innings are completed, the team’ with the most mns wins. If there is a tie, then the result stands as TIE means no win no lose. If by the end of the final day’s play all the innings are not completed, the game is a draw, no matter who appeared to be “winning”. Thus the strategic importance of sometimes declaring an innings closed, in order to have enough time to dismiss the other team and so win the game.

(b) Occasions when the Umpire calls or signals for a no ball are :

• The Umpire shall call a No ball if the bowler’s front foot lands beyond the popping crease at the time of delivery of ball. The bowler’s front foot must land with some part of the foot, whether grounded or raised, behind the popping crease.
• If the bowler delivers the ball directly to the batsman over the waist height, without pitching it on the ground, the umpire shall call it a no-ball.
• If the bowler bowls more than the allowable fast short pitch bouncer deliveries, the umpire shall call it a No ball.
• If in the opnion of either umpire the ball has been thrown or delivered underarm, the umpire shall call it a No ball.
• If there are more than two fielders, another than-the wicket-keeper, behind the popping crease on the on side at the time of delivery of ball, the umpire shall call it a no-ball.

(c) (i) Sledging : It is a term used to describe the practice by which some players seek to gain an advantage by insulting or verbally intimid¬ating the opposing player. The purpose is to try to weaken the opponent’s concentration and thereby making the opponent to make mistakes or underperform. It can be effective because the batsman stands within hearing range of the bowler and certain close fielders and vice versa. The insults may be direct or feature in conversations among fielders designed to be overheard.

(ii) IPL : Indian Premier League is a professional Twenty-20 cricket league in India contested generally during April and May of every year by teams representing Indian cities. The league was founded by the Board of Control for Cricket in India in 2007, and is regarded as the brainchild of Lalit Modi, the founder and former commissioner of the league. The IPL is the most-attended cricket league in the world and in 2014 ranked sixth by average attendance among all sports leagues. In 2010, the IPL became the first sporting event in the world to be broadcast live on YouTube.

(d) Footwork : Footwork is the most significant thing for a wicketkeeper. If our feet are right, all things moves with it. Many say that poor wicket keepers have to dive a lot. This must mean that a keeper having good footwork probably don’t have to dive very often. Taking the ball efficiently means right footwork so that the head is behind the ball on impact. Footwork of keeper consists of frequent, small, precise adjustments just like a dancer’s or a tennis player’s which are made in response to the trajectory and movement of the cricket ball so that the head remains in the optimum position.

Catching the Ball : For a wicket keeping, catching the ball is the key point. Judge the position where the elevation of the ball begins to decrease, that would be the ideal place for a keeper to stand. After positioning according to the speed of the bowler, one should be ready to catch the ball. When the ball reaches, catch the ball with relaxed but firm hands. Keep a steady head with eyes on the ball all the way into the gloves.

Diving : Diving often compensates for bad footwork so diving a lot should remind us to move our feet. However, diving becomes essential for the keeper when the ball is extremely out of his standing range. A thick edge on the ball would make ball go away from the keeper so he has to dive to take the ball. When keeper is standing up from the crouch position, weight equally distributed, it permit him to execute a dive easily.

• Off Drive : Played to a ball pitched just around the off stump. The bat should come down in a straight line in the direction of mid¬. off, to make sure that the ball is propelled toward that direction.
• Cover Drive : Played to a ball pitched slightly wider outside the off stump. The bat should come down in the direction of extra cover, so as to hit the ball in that area.
• Front Foot Cut : Played to a ball pitched wider outside the off stump, in the direction square of the wickets.
• On Drive : One of the most difficult drives to play, which is being eradicated from the modern game gradually, as not many exponents of it are left. Played between mid- on and mid-wicket.
• Straight Drive : The most eye-catching of all drives, played straight down the ground.

The batsman may choose which drive to play on a particular good length ball, but emphasis definitely lies on getting to the pitch of the ball.

(b) A Penalty Corner is Awarded :

• For an offence by a defender in the striking circle which does not prevent the probable scoring of a goal.
• For an intentional offence in the circle by a defender against an opponent who does not have possession of the ball or an opportunity to play the ball.
• For an intentional offence by a defender outside the circle but within the 23 metres area they are defending.
• For intentionally playing the ball over the back-line by a defender.
• When the ball becomes lodged in a player’s clothing or equipment while in the circle they are defending. ,

Procedure for taking Penalty Corner : An attacker pushes a ball from a mark which is 10 yards away from the goal post and other player stops the ball with hockey stick at the top of the shooting circle, then another player hits the ball in the goal post. It can be taken from both sides right and left. Meanwhile, the opposing team tries to stop the goal.

• The team which wins the toss has to start match with a centre pass.
• After a goal scored, match will start by centre pass by the team which received the goal.
• After half time, the opposing team who lost the toss will restart the game with centre pass.
• A bully is taken to restart the match when match stops due to an injury or any other reason and no penalty is awarded.
• A free hit is taken by a defender 15 metres in front of the centre of the goal-line to restart a match when a penalty stroke has been completed and no goal has been scored.

(d) (i) Penalty Corner : A penalty corner is awarded to an offensive team when the defensive team commits a foul inside the shooting circle. It is also awarded when a defender commits an intentional foul outside the circle within the 25 yard (23 metres) defensive area. A penalty corner is taken on the backline inside the circle from a mark at least 10 metres from the goal post, from whichever side of the goal the attacking team prefers. The ball can be hit or pushed, but the attacker must have at least one foot outside the field of play.

(ii) Dribbling : Dribbling is to move with the ball when the ball is in possession using a hockey stick. While dribbling, protect the ball and dribble into space. Different types of dribbling are Straight Dribble, Loose Dribble, Indian Dribble, Dribbling Push Back, One-Handed – Right Hand Dribble, One-Handed- Reverse Side Dribble.

(e) Duties of Referee during the game are as follows:

• The Referee shall impose and report to the Scorekeeper such penalties as are prescribed by the playing rules. He shall allow the goals scored.
• The Referee may consult with the Linesmen’ Goal Judge and Video Goal Judge, if available, in matters of disputed goals before making his decision, which shall be final.
• He shall report to the Scorekeeper the number of the goal scorer and any player(s) entitled to assists.
• At the first stoppage of play, he shall cause to be announced over the public address system the reason for not allowing a goal.
• He shall measure any equipment at his own discretion or if requested by the Captain of either team.

Question 11. [3×5] (a) List any five duties of a referee. [5] (b) Explain the following terms : (1) Travelling (ii) Bounce pass [5] (c) Mention any five occasions when the game clock is stopped during the game. [5] (d) List the equipment used in the game of basketball. [5] (e) Write any five skills a basketball player should possess. [5] Answer: (a)

• The referee shall inspect and approve all equipment, including all the signals used by the table officials and their assistant during the game.
• He shall designate the official game clock, twenty-four-second device, stopwatch and recognise the table officials.
• He shall not permit any player to wear objects which may cause injury to other players.
• Make the final decision whenever necessary or when the officials disagree. To make a final decision he may consult the umpire, the commissioner and/or the table officials.
• At the end of each half and of each extra period or at any time he feels necessary, he shall carefully examine the score sheet and approve the score and confirm the time that remains to be played.

(b) (i) Travelling : Travelling is a violation in basketball and is penalized by awarding the ball to the opposing team out of bounds closest to where the travel occurred. The travel rule is intended to prevent players from gaining an advantage by moving with the ball without dribbling.

The basic concept of travelling is based on the “pivot foot.” Once a player receives the ball or picks up his dribble, he is allowed to move one foot, while the other foot has to remain on the floor as a pivot foot. The foot which is in first contact with the ground while the ball is caught becomes the Pivot foot. In case the player has caught the ball in air and landed on both the foot then the foot which is moved first without dribbling will not be called Pivot foot and the other foot will be considered as Pivot foot. Pivot foot is allowed to rotate, as long as the ball of the foot remains on the floor at all times.

Travel occurs when the player lifts or drags the pivot foot form the floor before releasing the ball for dribbling.

A travel occurs when the player lifts the pivot foot and the other foot and returns to the floor before releasing the ball on a pass or a shot.

(ii) Bounce Pass : In bounce pass, the holding of the ball, body positions and passing action is approximately the same as in two hand chest pass. However, in bounce pass, the ball is thrown in such a way that the ball should bounce at specific place so that it may bounce up to the waist level of the receiver easily.

This type of pass can be performed with one hand only. There are two types of bounce pass :

• One-handed bounce pass.
• Two-handed bounce pass.

(c) The game clock is stopped when :

• Time expires at the end of a period, if not stopped automatically by the game clock itself.
• An official blows his whistle while the ball is live.
• A Basket is scored against a team which has requested a time-out.
• A Basket is scored when the game clock shows 2:00 minutes or less in the fourth period and in each extra period.
• The shot clock signal sounds while a team . is in control of the ball.

(d) The following equipment are required :

• Baskets comprising (pressure release) rings and nets
• Backboard support structures including padding.
• Basketballs
• Stopwatch or suitable (visible) device (not the game clock) for timing time-outs.
• shot clock operator,
• scorer/timer.
• Score sheet
• Player foul markers
• Team foul markers
• Alternating possession indicator
• Playing floor
• Playing court
• Adequate lighting.

Following are the five skills of a basketball player:

(e) (1) Dribbling : In this skill the player advances with the ball by bouncing it on the ground. This skill allows to move up and down the court and dodge past the defenders and execute plays. Proper dribbling requires ball-handling skills and knowledge of how to spread your fingers for ball control. It is best to dribble equally well with both hands. Examples of different skills of dribbling are in between legs dribble, behind the back dribble etc.

(2) Shooting : In order to score points in basketball, you need to shoot the ball into the hoop. This requires the ability to properly hold and throw the ball into the air toward the basket while avoiding defenders. A proper shot requires precise aiming, arm extension and lift from the legs. Examples of different shooting skills are jump shots, layups, hook shot etc.

(3) Running : Running is a big part of basketball. In a full-court game, one needs to run back and forth during the transitions from offense to defense. On offense running will help to avoid defenders and get to the basket quicker. On defense, running is needed to run after the opponent, especially during fast breaks.

(4) Passing : Passing means the movement of the ball from one player to another. Passing is the best way to keep possession of the basketball and is a faster way of moving the ball up the court than dribbling. Examples of different passing skills are Bounce Pass, Chest Pass, Overhead Pass etc.

(5) Jumping : Jumping is another skill that can define how good a basketball player is. Jumping skill is required during the jump ball in the beginning, while taking shots, trying to catch a pass and rebound. On defensive ability to jumping ability is required to block a shot or a pass by opponent. Jumping skill is required for collecting rebounds too.

(b) A player’s equipment consists of a jersey, shorts, socks (the uniform), sport shoes, protective gear like knee pads, elbow pads, shin guards, mouth guards and protective cups for men. The colour and the design for the jerseys, shorts and socks must be uniform for the team (except for the Libero). The uniforms must be clean.

• The shoes must be light and pliable with rubber or composite soles without heels.
• The number must be placed on the jersey at the centre of the front and of the back. The colour and brightness of the numbers must contrast with the colour and brightness of the jerseys.
• The team captain must have on his/her jersey a stripe of 8 x 2 cm underlining the number on the chest.
• It is forbidden to wear uniforms of a colour different from that of the other players (except for the Liberos), and/or without official numbers.

(c) (i) Libero : The Libero player is a defensive player and must wear a uniform which has a different dominant colour from any colour of the rest of the team. Libero replacements are not counted as substitutions. Libero should not serve, block or attempt to block. The Libero is allowed to replace any player in a back row position. He/she is restricted to perform as a back row player and is not allowed to complete an attack hit from anywhere (including playing court and free zone) if at the moment of the contact the ball is entirely higher than the top of the net.

(ii) Screening : Screening is said to have happened when :

• The players of the serving team prevents their opponent, through individual or collective screening, from seeing the server and the flight path of the ball.
• A player or a group of players of the serving team make(s) a screen by waving arms, jumping or moving sideways during the execution of the service, or by standing grouped, and in so doing hides both the server and the flight path of the ball until the ball reaches the vertical plane of the net.

If referee calls screening against a player or a team then the point will be awarded to opposite team.

(d) Five duties of a captain of a volleyball team are as follows:

• Prior to the match the team captain signs the score sheet and represents his/her team in the toss.
• During the match and while on the court, the team captain is the game captain. When the team captain is not on the court, the coach or the team captain must assign another player on the court, but not the Libero, to assume the role of game captain.
• In the absence of the coach, to request time-outs and substitutions to referee.
• At the end of the game thanks the referees and signs the score sheet to ratify the result.
• Captain may request for a change of ball to the referee.

(e) The procedure to be followe’d when the match is interrupted by bad weather or dim light is :

• The first referee, the organizer and the control committee, if there is one, shall decide the measures to be taken to re-establish normal conditions.
• If the match is resumed on the same playing court, the interrupted set shall continue normally with the same score, players (except expelled or disqualified ones) and positions. The sets already played will keep their scores.
• If the match is resumed on another playing court, the interrupted set is canceled and replayed with the same team members and the same starting line-ups (except expelled or disqualified ones) and the record of all sanctions will be maintained. The sets already played will keep their scores.
• Should one or several interruptions occur, exceeding 4 hours in total, the whole match shall be replayed.

(b) The five duties of a referee :

• A referee settles disputes when two players disagree.
• A referee gives the final verdict on whether the court is good for playing tennis. This includes making sure the playing surface is safe, the net is of the correct height, the lighting is adequate, the court is dry or that the temperature is not too cold or hot.
• A referee enforces match start times, issuing penalties and disqualifications for late starts.
• Referees should wear clothing that identifies them as officials. They should introduce themselves to players.
• Referee should not yell instructions or warnings to players.
• Deuce : Deuce is a term used in scoring. A deuce occurs in tennis when the score is 40-40 (both players have 40 points). To win the game a player need to get the advantage and then get an extra point. The game can come back to deuce if the player that has got a point after deuce (advantage) loses a point in the next.
• Half-Volley : The half volley is not actually a volley, but rather a forehand or backhand groundstroke hit immediately after the ball bounces onto your side of the court. A half volley in tennis is a shot that is hit immediately after the ball bounces but before it reaches the apex of its bounce. It is a fundamental shot for all doubles players who wish to master the midcourt.

(d) Player loses point if:

• The player serves two consecutive faults.
• Player does not return the ball in play before it bounces twice consecutively.
• The receiver returns the service before it bounces.
• The player deliberately carries or catches the ball in play on the racket or deliberately touches it with the racket more than once.
• The player deliberately and materially changes the shape of the racket when the ball is in play.

(e) (i) The tournaments of tennis are :

• Australian open
• French open
• ATF : The Asian Tennis Federation (ATF) is a non-profit organization affiliated with the International Tennis Federation that is open to all national tennis associations in Asia. The ATF’s objectives are to increase participation in, facilitate the development of and raise the standard of Asian tennis. The ATF works closely with the International Tennis Federation (ITF) and supports its member associations through the implementation of a wide range of programs.
• NLTA: National Lawn Tennis Association.

Question 14. [3 x 5] (a) Draw a neat diagram of a badminton court with all its specifications. [5] (b) Explain the scoring system in the game of badminton. [5] (c) Explain the following terms : [5] (i) Short service line (ii) Back gallery (iii) Footfault (iv) Love all (v) Rotation

(d) Write a short note on each of the following :[5] (i) Thomas Cup (ii) UberCup

(b) Every time there is a serve – there is a point scored. A rally is won when a shuttle is hit over the net and onto the floor of the opponent’s court. A rally is lost if the shuttle is hit into the net, or over the net but outside of the opponent’s court. A rally is also lost if the shuttle touches the player’s clothing or body, or if it is hit before it crosses over the net. The side winning a rally adds a point to its score. In Badminton World Federation statutes book 2018-19 it is written that it is permissible to play by prior arrangement, either.

• One game of 21 points.
• The best of 3 games of 15 points.
• The best of five games of 11 points.
• Short Service Line : It is a line l .98 from the net, which the serve must reach to be legal. This line marks the non-volley zone or fore¬court of the playing area.
• Back Gallery : The area in between the two last lines in the back area of the court i.e., the second last line which is parallel to the centre line from the back end of the court i.e., the line which considered the end line for doubles serve and the last line which is parallel to the centre line from the back end of the court i.e., the line which is considered end line in singles serve.
• Foot Fault: According to the service rule of badminton some part of both feet of the server and the receiver shall remain in contact with the surface of the court in a stationary position from the start of the service to until the service is delivered if it does not happen a foot fault will be called by the referee and the point will be awarded to the opponent of the foot faultier.
• Love all : In badminton the game starts with love all. It means the score is 0-0.
• Rotation of shoulder or elbow while executing various skills of badminton.
• It may signify the order of receiving and order of serving in a doubles badminton match.

(d) (i) Thomas Cup : The Thomas Cup or World Men’s Team Championships was first staged in 1948-49. Thomas Cup is named after Sir George Alan Thomas from England. The . Thomas Cup was played every three years in the start. Since 1982, the Tournament has been held every two years with a format of 3 singles and 2 doubles. Since 1984 Uber Cup and Thomas cup are held together.

(ii) Uber Cup : Uber Cup or Women’s World Team Championships was added for the first time in 1956-57. Uber Cup is named after Mrs. H.S. Uber from England. The Uber Cup was played every three years in the start. Since 1984 the tournament has been held every two years with the format of three singles and two doubles. Since 1984 Uber Cup and Thomas cup are held together.

• BWF : Badminton World Federation
• SGFI: School Games Federation of India
• BAI: Badminton Federation of India
• IBF : International Badminton Federation
• IBL : Indian Badminton League

Question 15. [3×5] Question 15. [3 x 51] (a) List the equipment used in swimming competitions. [5] (b) What is false start rope? [5] (c) List any five swimming events. [5] (d) Explain the following. [5] (i) Control room supervisor (ii) Individual, nedle (e) Write a short note on FINA. [5] Answer (a)

• Earplugs/Nose Clips
• Training tooles
• Swimming cap
• Fins, Paddles and Boards

(b) A false start/recall rope is a rope that stretches across the width of competitive racing pools. It stops swimmers who were unaware of a false start. They’re specifically designed to get the attention of swimmers to prevent them from exerting unnecessary energy in the case of a false start. Typically, the rope is made of some sort of polymer plastic to prevent deterioration from the water, and includes two floats and two quick-snap connectors with weights. The rope is typically located about halfway on yard pools and about 50-feet from the starting end on meter pools.

(c) Five Swimming events are as follows :

• 100 m Freestyle.
• 100 m Backstroke
• 100 m Butterfly
• 100 m Breast Stroke
• 4 x 50 Freestyle Relay

(d) (i) Control Room Supervisor : The Control Room Supervisor/Chief Recorder has overall responsibility for the efficient operation of the recording room (area) during the meet. The supervisor shall be responsible for the management of all personnel and shall supervise the automatic timing operation including the review of backup timing cameras [if installed]. Control Room Supervisor is responsible for checking the results from computer printouts. (ii) Individual Medley : In individual medley events, the swimmer covers the four swimming strokes in the following order : butterfly, backstroke, breaststroke and freestyle. Each of the strokes must cover one quarter (1/4) of the distance.

(e) The Federation International de Natation (FINA) was founded in London July 19, 1908 during the Olympic Games in London (GBR). Eight national federations were responsible for the formation of FINA : Belgium, Denmark, Finland, France, Germany, Great Britain, Hungary and Sweden. Some of the objectives of FINA are to promote and encourage the development of aquatics in all possible regards throughout the world; to provide fair and drug free sport; to promote and encourage the development of international relations to encourage participation in aquatics disciplines at all levels throughout the world regardless of age, gender or race etc.

FINA controls the development of the following aquatic events :

• Swimming : freestyle, backstroke, breaststroke, butterfly, medley, relays, mixed relays.
• Diving : Springboard (1 m, 3m), platform (10 m), synchronized diving (3 m and 10 m), mixed and team events.
• High Diving : Men (27 m) and women (20 m).
• Water Polo : Men and women.
• Synchronized Swimming : Solo, duet, mixed duet, team and free combination.
• Open Water Swimming : 5 km, 10 km, 25 km, team event.

Question 16. [3 x 5] (a) List the events of Decathlon and Heptathlon, in athletics. [5] (b) Draw a neat diagram of a discuss throw sector, with all its specifications. [5] (c) Explain the event high jump. Write the different techniques used in high jump. [5] (d) Mention five important duties of a referee, in Athletics. [5] (e) Explain the following terms : [5] (i) Baton (ii) Marathon (iii) Hurdling (iv) Take off area (v) Approach run Answer: (a) The heptathlon consists of seven events and is a standard part of men and women’s indoor track and field competitions, but only women compete in the heptathlon outdoors and in the heptathlon in the Olympics. Men’s indoor track events often include the heptathlon. For women, the heptathlon is composed of the 100 m hurdles, long jump, javelin throw, 200 m high jump, 800’m and shot put. For men’s indoor competitions, the heptathlon consists of the 60 m, 1,000 m, shot put, 60 m hurdles, high jump, long jump and pole vault.

The decathlon is a 10-discipline combined track and field event that is primarily a men’s event. A decathlon is sometimes held in women’s track and field events, but not at major international competitions such as the Olympics. The events in the men’s decathlon include the 100 m long jump, shot put, high jump, 400 m, 110 m hurdles, discuss throw, pole vault, javelin throw and 1,500 m. The women’s decathlon includes the same events.

and take off from one foot over a four-meter-long horizontal bar. High jumper seek to clear the greatest height without knocking the bar to the ground. An athlete has three attempts per height, although the athlete can elect to ‘pass’, i.e., advance to a greater height despite not having cleared the current one. Three consecutive failures at the same height, or combination of heights, cause an athlete’s elimination.

(c) In high jump an athlete has to jump unaided and take off from one foot over a four-meter-long horizontal bar. High jumper seek to clear the greatest height without knocking the bar to the ground. An athlete has three attempts per height, although athlete can elect to ‘pass’, i.e., advance to a greater height despite not having cleared the current one. Three consecutive failures at the same height, or combination of heights, cause an athlete’s elimination.

High jump technique can be mainly divided into three Approach (Running towards the high jump bar) Take-off (Movement of lifting the body up in air and flight (what is done in air to landing on mat). Major high jump techniques are:

• Scissor Jump : Legs are lifted over the bar in alteration one after the other.
• Eastern Cut-off : Athlete rotates the trunk into a horizontal position at the peak of the jump.
• Western Roll : In the athlete clears the bar on his/her side, with the take-off leg tucked under the rest of the body.
• Straddle Jump: The athlete cleared the bar face-down, with the body stretched along the bar.

Fosbury-flop: The athlete runs up in a curve, jumps by taking off from his outer foot and twists his body to clear the bar with his back. He finishes the movement by lifting his legs over the bar and landing on a mattress.

• Referee shall have authority to warn or exclude from competition. any athlete guilty of acting in an unsporting or improper manner.
• The referee shall not act as a judge or umpire but may take any action or decision according to the rules based on his own observations and may overrule a decision of a judge.
• The appropriate referee shaLl check all final results.
• If, in the opinion of the appropriate referee, circumstances arise at any competition such that justice demands that any event or any part of an event should he contested again, he shall have authority to declare the event or any part of an event void and that it shall be held again, either on the same day or on some future occasion, as he shall decide.
• The referee may reconsider a decision (whether made in the first instance or in considering a protest) on the basis of any available evidence, provided the new decision is still applicable.
• Baton : A short light stick that one member of a team in a relay race passes to the next person to run.
• Marathon : A long running race of 42.195 km.
• Hurdling : In hurdling a runner races over a series of obstacles called hurdles, which are set at a fixed distance apart.
• Take off Area : The area marked on the ground from where the jumper takes off for a jump.
• Approach Run : The approach run is a buildup run by the athlete before moving the stage of taking off for a jump.

ISC Class 12 Physical Education Previous Year Question Papers

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ICSE Physical Education Question Paper 2018 Solved for Class 10

Icse physical education previous year question paper 2018 solved for class 10.

General Instruction:

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Note. Attempt all Questions from Section A and two questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets ().

Section – A [50 Marks] (Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1. (a) What is meant by Personal Hygiene? (2) (b) What is a Cramp? (2) (c) State any three main causes of Cramp. (3) (d) Name the organism which causes Malaria. Mention any two symptoms of Malaria. (3) Answer: (a) Personal Hygiene : Personal health is also termed as Hygiene. The word ‘Hygiene’ comes from Greek word ‘Hygiea’ –  the Greek goddess of beauty. She was the symbol of cleanliness, healthy habits, good structural figure and in all, a symbol of good health. For this the importance of personal health must be realised as taking care of one’s own body is called personal hygiene. It includes:

A. Personal cleanliness (a) Care of Skin (b) Care of Hands and Nails (c) Care of Hair (d) Care of Teeth and Gums (e) Care of Eyes (f) Care of Ears (g) Care of Feet B. Rest, sleep and relaxation ‘ C. Healthy habits

(b) Cramp: Cramp is inability of muscles to contract properly causing severe pain over affected part. In other words, this is unbalance contraction of muscles.

(c) The causes of the cramps are:

• Due to overtraining (without rest)
• Loss of body water by sweating
• Physical activity during sickness
• Loss or lack of body salts or minerals
• Physical activity dining extreme bad weather or climate
• Not performing proper warming-up

(d) Malaria Cause: It is caused by biting of female Anopheles mosquito. The growth of these mosquitoes takes place in duty places, garbage, standing water, etc. When this mosquito bites a healthy person, it injects the germs via the blood inside the body. The incubation period of malaria is 7-20 days. It is the most fatal disease in the world. Symptoms:

• Headache and shivering with high temperature up to 104°-106° F (Fahrenheit).
• There is a lot of perspiration (sweating) when fever subsides.
• Body becomes weak and skfn with pale colour.
• Nausea feeling.

Question 2. (a) Define First-aid (2) (b) State any two ways to maintain Oral Hygiene. (2) (c) List any three ways of maintaining Personal Cleanliness. (3) (d) Suggest any three measures to avoid accidents caused by fire. (3) Answer: (a) First-aid: First aid is the immediate and temporary care given to the victim. The first objective is to save life. Knowing what to do and what not to do can help to avoid further injury, ease pain and possibly prevent disability and death. First aid can be a life-saving skill. In simple words, it is the first help to the victim.

(b) Oral Hygiene or Dental care:

• Cleaning the teeth and gums thoroughly after every meal.
• Brushing the teeth with fluoride toothpaste, at least twice a day.
• Reducing intake of sugar and sugary items (during dinner).
• Tooth decay can be prevented on large scale by adding fluorine in water supplies.
• Dentist must be consulted twice a year.

(c) Maintaining Personal Cleanliness:

• Bath daily, clean your clothes and utensils thoroughly and dry them in sunlight.
• Wash hands and eatables properly (like fruits, vegetables) before eating and cover the eatables properly.
• Do not share your personal items like undergarments, clothes, towel, shoes, safety razor, comb, handkerchief, etc.
• Care of teeth and gums (Oral hygiene).
• Care of eyes, care of hair; care of ears.

(d) Prevention from Fire Accidents :

• Always keep fire extinguisher ready or water fii’^d bucket.
• Wear cotton clothes while working near the wire
• Matchstick should be properly extinguished before throwing.
• Electric switches should not be switched on when there is leakage of LPG
• Rubber tube of gas stove should be checked regularly for leakage.

Question 3. (a) What is meant by Immunization? (2) (b) Define Posture. (2) (c) Write the full form of RICE. (3) (d) State any three symptoms of Rheumatic Fever. (3) Answer: (a) Immunization: Immunization is the introduction of any kind of dead, attenuated or weakened pathogens for the artificial development of immunity (resistance) against specific diseases. Immunization against some common infectious diseases has been taken up in India on a mass scale with an attempt to eradicate or minimize these diseases.

(b) Posture: Posture is the body position. It may be static or dynamic such as sitting, standing, lying, walking, running, reading, etc. There are different views about posture. According to Physical Educationists: ‘Posture is a tool of mechanical efficiency of body which causes minimum stress to muscles. Moreover, maximum output of physical efficiency can be attained.’ According to Doctors, ‘Posture is soundness of physiological balance of body’.

(c) RICE Means : Rest, Ice, Compression, Elevation

• Rest to player and completely restrict the movement of joint immediately.
• Immediately apply cold compression or ice over the affected part to stop internal bleeding. Repeat this process several times after some intervals and put compression bandage over the affected part.
• Compression bandage should be applied over the affected part to reduce the swelling.
• Elevate the affected part above the level of heart by splint or support.

(d) Rheumatic Fever :It is a serious disease which mainly affects children and young people in teens. It is an allergic condition that attacks the connective tissues of the body. Symptoms:

• Child develops sore throat,
• Aching in joints, redness over joints
• Irritation over skin, rashes over skin,
• Continuous fever and body aching,
• Soreness in muscles and joints,

Question 4. (a) Define Antibiotics. (2) (b) State any two causes of Obesity. (2) (c) State any three harmful effects of consuming alcohol. (3) (d) List any three transmission modes of Venereal diseases. (3) Answer: (a) Antibiotics : Antibiotics are the chemical substances produced by certain microorganisms that kill or inhibit the growth of other microorganisms. The first antibiotic – the Penicillin – was discovered by chance by Alexander Fleming in 1928. Some of the antibiotics act on a variety of pathogenic microbes and are called broad spectrum antibiotics e.g., chloromyelin, aureomycin, declomycin, tetramycin, etc.

(b) The causes of obesity are:

• Wrong dietary habits and less physical activity like overeating.
• Taking lots of fats and fried food.
• Taking lots of animal flesh; eating lots of sweets; eating junk food.
• Drinking alcohol.

(c) Harmful effects of Alcohol: (i) Economic Loss : Alcohol is a costly product in all its forms. It causes great loss of money, once a person is addicted to. Thus, it brings poverty to many homes. It causes many health problems and to cure all these health-related problems, extra money for medical treatment is required.

(ii) Physical Efficiency Loss : Regular drinking of alcohol makes body sick, weak and diseased. Body loses physical efficiency and health is affected to a great extent. Various systems of the body lose their efficiency. Thus, it results in an open invitation to many health problems. Alcohol has very adverse effect on sportspersons; it declines their physical efficiency to a great extent. Thus, performance is very poor for many days.

(iii) Loss of Senses: When we drink alcohol, it affects our senses. The sense of judgment is lost, so a person cannot think properly. It reduces self-control and a person commits many mistakes. An alcoholic person cannot control his emotions. Sometimes these emotions become aggressive and violent. Alcoholic sportsperson loses perfection in skill; thus performance is poor in games and sports.

(iv) Loss of Memory: It affects the CNS (Central Nervous System) and produces slow and continuous depression. In an alcoholic person, the brain’s activities get reduced. Brain cannot remember the immediate happening or occurrence, i.e., short term memory gets lost.

(v) Crime: Alcohol has direct relation with crime. Most of the crimes are committed when a person is drunk. It may result in suicide, road accidents, injuries, death and violence. Drunkards are more involved in sex crimes.

(d) Venereal diseases transmission:

• Sexual intercourse contact is the main mode of transmission.
• Unhygienic habits like sharing of clothes, towels, undergarments,
• Contaminated toilet seats and even bath water.
• Infected mother transfers this to baby.
• Dampness and slump area are the root place of VD.

Question 5. (a) Write the full form of ABC and CPR. (2) (b) Name any two diseases spread by Virus. (2) (c) Mention any three cause’s of Sports Injuries. (3) (d) Write the calories required for the following age groups : (3) (i) A child aged 10 years. (ii) An adult female (50 Kg) (iii) An adult male with heavy sports activity. Answer: (a) Full form of ABC : Airway, Breathing and Circulatioa Full form of CPR: Cardio-pulmonaiy Resuscitation

(b) Viruses Spread Diseases: Common cold, influenza, measles, mumps, poliomyelitis, rabies, smallpox, chickenpox, yellow fever, AIDS, etc.

(c) Causes of Sports Injuries. (i) Proper Warming-up : Proper warming-up (general and specific) is a must for player before participating in any physical activity. It tones-up body muscles and prepares the player psychologically for the coming activity. Thus, it prevents them from accidents or injuries.

(ii) Medical Check before Activity : Player should be properly medically checked up before physical activity related to previous injury disease, physical fitness level, etc. They must be fit to participate in the activity.

(iii) Proper Concentration: Player should play with full alertness and proper concentration over the activity. Player should not have any stress or tension; moreover, must be mentally ready for the activity.

(iv) Safety Guards and Check Equipments : Player should check his equipments and their condition. Player should use good quality equipments along with safety guards. Player should wear proper dress or kit along with proper shoes (according to surface as per activity needs).

(v) Regular Conditioning and Proper Skill : Regular conditioning improves various abilities of player like proper skill action, develops specific physical components, strengthens weak muscles and joints, etc.

(d) Caloric requirement of: Child of 10 years requires = 1500 Calories per day Adult female (50 kg) requires = 2400 Calories per day Adult male with heavy sports activity requires = 3500 Calories per day

Section – B [50 Marks] Attempt two questions from this Section. You must attempt one question on each of the two games of your choice.

Question 6. (a) Explain the following terms : (8) (i) A Bouncer (ii) A Duck (iii) A Yorker (iv) A Century (b) (i) Explain the term Overthrow. (9) (ii) Enumerate any three duties of a Leg Umpire. (iii) Under which condition can an umpire declare Bad Light. (c) (i) State the full form of ICC and BCCI. (8) (ii) When is a batsman considered to be Out bowled? (iii) Explain the term Hat-trick. (iv) What is the importance of the 30 yard circle? Answers: (a) (i) A Bouncer : When the bowler bowls the ball fast and short so as to rise above the shoulder level after pitching. (ii) A Duck: The batsman gets ‘out’ without scoring a single run. (iii) A Yorker: When ball is just bounced under the bat. (iv) A Century: A batsman scoring ton or one hundred runs.

(b) (i) Overthrow: II; a fielder throws the ball and no other fielder is able to stop the throwing ball, the batsman is able to score runs or a boundary. Such runs are termed as overthrow. (ii) Duties of Leg Umpire:

• To check the Run-out,
• To check Stump-out,
• To check Hit-wicket,
• To check High bounce ball.
• To check Stumped -out.

(iii) Bad-Light: When light is not sufficient to play and it causes danger to player. There is low intensity of light which creates problem to batsman, as they are not able to see the coming ball properly. In this condition Umpire can declare bad-light. Then match is supposed to stop.

(c) (i) Full form of ICC is International Cricket Council Full form of BCCI is Board of Control for Cricket in India (ii) Bowled out: If the ball partially or completely destroys the wicket even if it touches the bat. (iii) Hat-Trick : A bowler gets three wickets in three successive balls, i.e., the bowler dismisses three batsmen on three consecutive balls. (iv) 30-Yard Circle: An inner circle marked at 30 yards around the stumps. This circle is used dining power play to restrain 9 fielders inside die 30 yard circle.

Question 7. (a) Explain the following terms in Cricket: (i) Intentional Disturbance (ii) Timed-out (iii) A Stance (iv) A Maiden Over (b) (i) What is the rule of Follow-On in a five days test match? (ii) State any three ways by which Rims are scored. (iii) Write down any three fielding positions of On-side in Cricket? (iv) What is the difference between a Bye and a Leg Bye in Cricket? (v) Answer the following:

• The length of the bat.
• The weight of the ball.
• Size of the bails’
• The height of the Stumps.

Answers: (a) (i) Intentional Disturbance: If the batsman gets in the way of an opponent trying to catch the ball. (ii) Timed-Out: If the batsman does not report to face the bowler or unduly delays the match. (iii) Stance: It is a position or posture of a batsman at the crease before facing a delivery. (iv) Maiden-Over: The over in which not even a single run is scored.

(b) (i) Follow-On : It is given in a test match when batting team cannot score sufficient runs and the lead is more than 200 runs, it may be given follow-on or to bat again. (ii) Scoring Runs : In addition to the batsman running, runs can be scored in

• Bye : When a run is made without the ball touching the bat or any other part of the batsman’s body, this is called a Bye.
• Leg-Bye : When the ball is touched by any part of the batsman’s body except his hands, this is called a Leg- Bye.
• No-Ball: A ball is declared No-Ball if it is bowled with a bent arm or if the bowler crosses over the line; the batting team is awarded one run. Apart from this, he can score runs by hitting the ball for running. Batsman is not given ‘out’ on no-ball (except Run-Out). The bowler has to bowl an extra ball for a no-ball.
• Boundary : If the batted ball touches or crosses the boundary line after touching the ground, 4-runs are awarded.
• Sixer: If the batted ball lands outside the boundary line without touching the ground, the batsman is awarded 6 runs.

(iii) Fielding positions of On-side: Mid-on, Long-on, Cover- drive, Mid-wicket, Square leg,

(c) (i) Bye : when a run is made without the ball touching the bat or any other part of the batsman’s body, this is called a Bye. Leg-Bye: When the ball is touched by any part of the batsman’s body except his hands, this is called a Leg- Bye. (ii) 1. Length of Bat = 38 Inch (96-5 cm) 2. Weight of Cricket Ball = 5.5 Ounce (156 g) 3. Bails Overall Length 4!4 Inches (11 cm) 4. Height of Stumps = 28 Inches (711 cm)

Question 8. (a) Answer the following: (i) A free kick (ii) Heading (iii) Passing (iv) Weight and circumference of football. (b) (i) Explain the term Offside. (ii) Give the proper procedure to replace a field player with a substitute player. (iii) Mention any three instances for which a direct free kick is awarded. (c) Draw a diagram of a football field showing all its dimensions. Answer: (a) (i) A Free Kick: Free-Kick: It is given when Referee shows the warning card to the player. In this foul has been committed outside the penalty area like intentional delay, intentional hit to the player, intentional handling the ball, charging, dangerous play, holding opponent from behind, viqlent play, kicking the opponent. While taking direct-kick the opposing player should be at least 10 yards away from the ball. Goal can be scored from direct kick.

(ii) Heading: Usually an attacker heads the ball to redirect it towards the net. A defender heads the ball to deflect it away from the goal. In this forehead hits the overhead coming ball.

(iii) Passing: In this the ball is passed to own teammate who is close. The ball is slightly pushed so that it should reach to the desired point. There are lots of variation of passing like push pass (ball is pushed with inner-edge of foot); out-step push (with the outer edge of the foot), through-pass (between the opponents)

(iv) Weight of the Football = 14 to 16 ounce (425 g ± 25 g) Circumference of Football = 27 to 28 inch (68 cm to 71.1 cm)

(b) (i) Off-side : A player is in an Off-side position, if: he/ she is nearer to opponents’ goal line than both the ball and the second-last opponent. Aplayer is not in an offside position if: He is in his own half of the field of play. He is level with the second-last opponent. He is level with the last two opponents. This offside is also considered as a defensive tactic (the entire defensive line moves rapidly in a wave to put the attackers offside). Offside is given by linesman by raising red flag. Goal is not considered in that case and opponent is awarded with indirect kick.

(ii) Substitution Procedure: To replace a player with a substitute, the following conditions must be observed:

• the referee must be informed before any proposed substitution is made
• the substitute only enters the field of play after the player being replaced has left and after receiving a signal from the referee
• the substitute only enters the field of play at the halfway line and during a stoppage in the match
• the substitution is completed when a substitute enters the field of play from that moment, the substitute becomes a player and the player he has replaced becomes a substituted player
• the substituted player takes no further part in the match, except where return substitutions are permitted.

(iii) A Direct Free Kick is awarded to the opposing team if a player commits

• kicks or attempts to kick an opponent
• trips or attempts to trip an opponent
• jumps at an opponent
• charges an opponent
• strikes or attempts to strike an opponent
• pushes an opponent .
• tackles an opponent