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Entrance exam preparation.

Gain valuable insights on effective studying techniques, explore common PhD entrance exam syllabus, and access essential information to help you prepare meticulously for your upcoming entrance exams.

Major PhD Course Entrance Exams in India

In the Indian higher education landscape, universities have specified specific tests as prime requirements for doctoral degree applications. Therefore, PhD entrance exams hold immense importance for students aspiring to embark on the rewarding journey of pursuing a PhD and gaining admission to renowned universities in India. Explore these significant entrance exams that can help pave the way for your PhD admission.

Eligibility Check

The basic requirements for pursuing a PhD are listed below. It is advisable that candidates refer to specific universities that they are applying for to ensure that they qualify any unique requirements of the respective universities.

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Minimum qualification.

Candidates must possess a Master's degree or M.Phil (if University necessitates) from a recognized university, preferably in a relevant field.

Academic Performance

Candidates should have obtained a minimum aggregate of 55% marks in their post-graduation. Relaxations in marks are provided for candidates belonging to SC, ST, and OBC categories as per government norms.

Research Experience

Preference is often given to candidates with prior research experience, demonstrating their commitment and aptitude for doctoral-level study.

No Objection Certificate (NOC)

Candidates employed in educational institutions or companies must obtain a No Objection Certificate (NOC) from their employer, along with relevant work experience in a related field, for pursuing a part-time PhD.

Subject-Specific Requirements

Certain specialized fields such as engineering and technology may require a valid Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) score as a mandatory eligibility criterion.

List of Top Entrance Exams for PhD in India

• UGC NET Exam: The UGC NET Exam is a national-level exam that is conducted by the University Grants Commission (UGC). It is a two-tier exam, and it is required for eligibility for teaching positions in Indian universities and colleges.
• CSIR-UGC NET exam: The CSIR-UGC NET exam is another national-level exam that is conducted by the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research (CSIR) and the UGC. It is a two-tier exam, and it is required for eligibility for research fellowships and jobs in government research institutions.
• Joint Graduate Entrance Examination for Biology and Interdisciplinary Life Sciences (JGEEBILS): The JGEEBILS exam is a national-level exam that is conducted by the National Centre for Biological Sciences (NCBS). It is a one-tier exam, and it is required for admission to PhD programs in biology and interdisciplinary life sciences.
• DBT JRF Biotech Entrance Test: The DBT JRF Biotech Entrance Test is a national-level exam that is conducted by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT). It is a one-tier exam, and it is required for eligibility for research fellowships in biotechnology.
• TIFR Graduate School Admission Entrance Test: The TIFR Graduate School Admission Entrance Test is a national-level exam that is conducted by the Tata Institute of Fundamental Research (TIFR). It is a one-tier exam, and it is required for admission to PhD programs in science and mathematics.
• ICMR JUNIOR RESEARCH FELLOWSHIPS: The ICMR JUNIOR RESEARCH FELLOWSHIPS is a national-level exam that is conducted by the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR). It is a one-tier exam, and it is required for eligibility for research fellowships in medical sciences.
• NIMHANS PG/PG Diploma/Superspeciality/PhD online entrance test: The NIMHANS PG/PG Diploma/Superspeciality/PhD online entrance test is a national-level exam that is conducted by the National Institute of Mental Health and Neurosciences (NIMHANS). It is a one-tier exam, and it is required for admission to PhD programs in mental health and neurosciences.
• JNU PhD Entrance: The JNU PhD Entrance is a national-level exam that is conducted by the Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU). It is a one-tier exam, and it is required for admission to PhD programs in various disciplines at JNU.
• JRF-GATE: The JRF-GATE exam is a national-level exam that is conducted by the Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Madras. It is a two-tier exam, and it is required for eligibility for research fellowships in engineering, science, and technology.
• NIPER PhD Entrance Exam: The NIPER PhD Entrance Exam is a national-level exam that is conducted by the National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research (NIPER). It is a one-tier exam, and it is required for admission to PhD programs in pharmaceutical sciences at NIPER.

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Ugc net exam, exam structure.

The UGC NET exam is a computer-based test (CBT) exam, and it consists of two papers: Paper 1 and Paper 2.

• Paper 1: This is a general paper designed to assess the candidate's teaching and research aptitude, reasoning ability, comprehension, and general awareness. It consists of 50 multiple-choice questions, each carrying 2 marks.
• Paper 2: This paper is subject-specific and assesses the candidate's in-depth knowledge and expertise in their chosen subject. It consists of 100 multiple-choice questions, each carrying 2 marks.
• The total exam time for both papers is three hours. There is no break between Papers 1 and 2.
• The paper is presented in both English and Hindi languages.
• UGC NET exam does not have a negative marking scheme.

UGC NET Paper 1 Syllabus

Unit-i: teaching aptitude.

This unit focuses on the concept of teaching, including its objectives, levels, and characteristics. Candidates should understand the different requirements for effective teaching and the factors that influence teaching, such as teacher and learner characteristics. They should be aware of teaching methods in higher learning institutions, both teacher-centered and learner-centered, as well as traditional and modern teaching support systems.

• Teaching: Concept, objectives, levels of teaching (memory, understanding, and reflective) characteristics, and basic requirements
• Learner’s characteristics: Characteristics of adolescent and adult learners (academic, social, emotional, and cognitive) individual differences
• Factors affecting teaching related to teacher, learner, support material, Instructional facilities, learning environment, Institution
• Teaching methods in higher learning institutions: teacher-centered vs learner-centered methods, offline vs online methods (Swayam, Swayamprabha, MOOCs, etc.)
• Teaching support system: Traditional, modern, and ICT based
• Evaluation systems: Elements and types of evaluation, evaluation in Choice Based Credit Systems in higher education, computer-based testing, innovations in evaluation systems

Unit-II: Research Aptitude

Candidates should grasp the meaning, types, and characteristics of research in this unit. They should be familiar with different research approaches and methods, including experimental, descriptive, historical, qualitative, and quantitative methods. Knowledge of the steps involved in research and the proper format and styles of thesis and article writing is essential. Understanding the application of ICT in research and research ethics is also important.

• Research: Meaning, types, and characteristics
• Positivism and post-positivist approaches to research
• Methods of research: Experimental, descriptive, historical, qualitative, and quantitative methods
• Steps of research
• Thesis and article writing: Format and styles of referencing
• Application of ICT in research
• Research ethics

Unit-III: Comprehension:

This unit assesses candidates' comprehension skills. They will be given a passage of text and need to answer questions based on the information provided.

• A passage of text is given
• Questions asked from the passage to be answered

Unit-IV: Communication

Candidates should understand the meaning and types of communication, including verbal and non-verbal communication. Effective communication in various contexts, such as inter-cultural and group communication, should be understood. Awareness of barriers to effective communication and the influence of mass media on society is also important.

• Communication: Meaning, types, and characteristics of communication
• Effective communication: Verbal and non-verbal, inter-cultural and group communications, classroom communication
• Barriers to effective communication
• Mass-media and society

Unit-V: Mathematical Reasoning and Aptitude

This unit tests candidates' mathematical reasoning skills and aptitude. They should be familiar with different types of reasoning, such as number series, letter series, codes, and relationships. Competence in mathematical aptitude, including fractions, time, distance, ratios, proportions, percentages, profit and loss, interest, and averages, is essential.

• Types of reasoning
• Number series, letter series, codes, and relationships
• Mathematical aptitude (fraction, time & distance, ratio, proportion and percentage, profit and loss, interest and discounting, averages, etc.)

Unit-VI: Logical Reasoning

Logical reasoning evaluates candidates' ability to understand argument structures, distinguish deductive and inductive reasoning, and analyze analogies. Knowledge of Venn diagrams for establishing the validity of arguments and Indian Logic, including means of knowledge and types of inference, is required. Understanding logical fallacies and the structure of arguments is crucial for this unit.

• Understanding the structure of arguments: Argument forms, the structure of categorical propositions, mood and figure, formal and informal fallacies, uses of language, connotations, and denotations of terms, the classical square of opposition.
• Evaluating and distinguishing deductive and inductive reasoning
• Venn diagram: Simple and multiple uses for establishing the validity of arguments
• Indian Logic: Means of knowledge
• Pramanas: Pratyaksha (Perception), Anumana (Inference), Upamana (Comparison), Shabda (Verbal testimony), Arthapatti (Implication), and Anupalabddhi (Non-apprehension)
• Structure and kinds of Anumana (inference), Vyapti (invariable relation), Hetvabhasas (fallacies of inference)

Logical Reasoning is a crucial unit in the UGC NET Paper 1 Syllabus and is meant to test the analytical thinking and tactical skills of the candidates and future professors.

Unit-VII: Data Interpretation

This unit focuses on data sources, acquisition, classification, and interpretation. Candidates should be able to represent data graphically using various charts and tables. Interpretation skills and an understanding of data governance are important.

• Sources, acquisition, and classification of data
• Quantitative and qualitative data
• Graphical representation (bar chart, histograms, pie chart, table chart, and line chart) and mapping of data
• Data interpretation
• Data and governance

Unit-VIII: Information and Communication Technology (ICT)

Candidates should be familiar with general ICT abbreviations and terminology. Basic knowledge of the internet, intranet, email, and audio/video conferencing is required. Understanding digital initiatives in higher education and the role of ICT in governance is also important.

• ICT: General abbreviations and terminology
• Basics of the Internet, Intranet, E-mail, Audio, and Video-conferencing
• Digital Initiatives in higher education
• ICT and Governance

Unit-IX: People, Development, and Environment

This unit covers the relationship between human activities and the environment. Candidates should be aware of the impacts of anthropogenic activities on the environment and various environmental issues such as pollution, climate change, and waste management. Knowledge of natural resources, natural hazards, environmental protection acts, and international agreements is necessary.

• Development and Environment: Millennium Development and Sustainable development goals
• Human and environment interaction: Anthropogenic activities and their impacts on the environment
• Environmental issues: Local, regional, and global; air pollution, water pollution, soil pollution, noise pollution, waste (solid, liquid, biomedical, hazardous, electronic), climate change and its socio-economic and political dimensions
• Impacts of Pollutants on human health
• Natural and energy resources: Solar, Wind, Soil, Hydro, Geothermal, Biomass, Nuclear, and Forests
• Natural hazards and disasters: Mitigation strategies
• Environmental Protection Act (1986), National Action Plan on Climate Change, International agreements/efforts -Montreal Protocol, Rio Summit, Convention on Biodiversity, Kyoto Protocol, Paris Agreement, International Solar Alliance

Unit-X: Higher Education System

Candidates should understand the evolution of higher learning and research in India, including ancient and post-independence education systems. Awareness of different learning programs, policies, governance, and administration in higher education is required. Knowledge of value education, environmental education, and professional/technical education is also important.

• Institutions of higher learning and education in ancient India
• Evolution of higher learning and Research in Post-independence India
• Oriental, conventional, and non-conventional learning programs in India
• Professional, technical, and skill-based education
• Value education and environmental education
• Policies, governance, and administration

Cracking Paper 1 for UGC NET Aspirants

• Understand the Syllabus: Familiarize yourself with the UGC NET Paper 1 syllabus. This will help you comprehend the breadth of the topics and enable you to create a study plan and timetable to cover all the essential areas within the given time frame.
• Time Management: Identify your weaker sections and allocate more time to study them. Set time limits for each topic and practice efficient time management during your preparation. Additionally, allocate sufficient time for other subjects to maintain a balanced approach during the main exam.
• Practice Mock Tests and Quizzes: Utilize mock tests and daily quizzes to enhance your preparation. Mock tests aid in developing effective strategies, while practicing previous year's questions improves accuracy and speed. Regularly solving mock tests and revising past questions will boost your confidence for the actual exam.
• Focus on Conceptual Understanding: Emphasize a strong conceptual understanding of the topics covered in Paper 1. Instead of rote memorization, aim to comprehend the underlying principles and theories. This approach will enable you to answer questions effectively and tackle application-based queries.
• Stay Updated and Seek Guidance: Keep yourself updated with current trends and advancements in the field of education, research, and technology. Engage in discussions, follow reliable sources, and seek guidance from mentors or subject experts to clarify any doubts or queries you may have.

UGC NET Paper 2 Syllabus

For the UGC NET exam, candidates are given the opportunity to choose a subject for Paper 2 that aligns with their post-graduate specialization or a closely related field. The vast array of subjects covered by NTA UGC NET includes a comprehensive list of 101 disciplines. To explore the specific syllabus for their chosen subject, candidates can visit the official website at https://www.ugcnetonline.in/syllabus-new.php. This allows candidates to focus their preparation and delve deeper into their area of expertise.

Below are descriptions of some popular subject choices for the UGC NET exam:

• Commerce: Commerce is a sought-after subject for UGC NET aspirants. The UGC NET Commerce Syllabus covers topics such as business environment, international business, economics, statistics, and banking. This provides a comprehensive understanding of the commercial aspects of business, including economic principles, statistical analysis, financial institutions, and global business dynamics.
• English Literature: English Literature is a widely attempted subject in the UGC NET exam. The UGC NET English Literature Syllabus is divided into 10 units, covering various genres like drama, poetry, fiction, storytelling, and non-fictional prose. By delving into these units, candidates can enhance their literary analysis skills, explore different literary works, and develop a deeper appreciation for the vast realm of English literature.
• Political Science: Candidates with a master's degree in Political Science can opt for this subject. The UGC NET Political Science Syllabus includes topics such as political theory, comparative politics, Indian political thought, international relations, and governance. By exploring these areas, candidates gain insights into political theories, ideologies, systems, international relations, and the functioning of governments.
• Management: Management is a popular subject choice for UGC NET candidates. The UGC NET Management Syllabus covers areas like human resource planning, organizational development, marketing, and talent management. This will help the candidate develop a strong foundation in management principles, organizational behavior, marketing strategies, and human resource management.
• Economics: Economics is another subject with significant demand among UGC NET aspirants. The UGC NET Economics Syllabus covers topics such as macroeconomics, microeconomics, econometrics, and monetary policies. They provide insights into economic principles, analysis of market behavior, statistical methods, and the impact of government policies on the economy.
• Computer Science: UGC NET Computer Science Syllabus attracts candidates with a background in computer-related subjects. It covers topics like computer organization, programming languages, database management, and graphics. This can help the candidates enhance their understanding of computer architecture, software development, database management systems, and computer graphics.

CSIR UGC NET Exam

The CSIR UGC NET exam, conducted by the National Testing Agency (NTA), is a prestigious examination in India for determining the eligibility of Indian Nationals for Junior Research Fellowships (JRF) and Lectureship/Assistant Professorship in the field of Science & Technology. CSIR is a premier national R&D organization that aims to foster S&T human resource development through grants and fellowship schemes.

Eligibility

Educational qualifications.

• Candidates must have a degree in B.Pharma/ BE/ B. Tech/ MSc/MBBS/ Integrated BS-MS/ BS- 4 years or equivalent degree with at least 55% marks.
• Aspirants who are currently pursuing an M.Sc and have completed graduation (10+2+3) are also eligible for this examination under the Result Awaited Category given that they finish their degree within two years.
• 5% marks relaxation is given to candidates who belong to reserved category i.e. Candidates from SC/ ST and persons with disability (PwD) category are required to attain a minimum of 50% marks in M.Sc or equivalent degree/ Integrated BS-MS/ BS- 4 years/ BE/ B.Tech/ B.Pharma/ MBBS
• Candidates who have done B.Sc or if they are pursuing the Integrated MS-PhD program and have got a minimum 55% marks then they are eligible to apply.
• Candidates who have completed graduation from a science or engineering background can also get the fellowship, provided they register for Ph.D. or integrated Ph.D. program within two years.
• Those who have finished their Master’s degree before September 19, 1992, with a minimum of 50% marks will be eligible to apply for a Lectureship only.
• Life Science: Candidates should have completed their educational qualification in Life Science.
• Chemical Science: Candidates must possess a degree in BS/M.Sc./B-Tech or an equivalent qualification in Chemistry.
• Earth Science: Candidates should have completed BS-MS/M.Sc./BS-4 Years/B-Pharma or any equivalent course in the field of Earth Science.
• Mathematics: Candidates must have completed BS-MS/M.Sc./BS/B-Tech or any equivalent course in the field of Mathematics.
• Physical Science: Candidates should hold a degree of BS-MS in Physics, M.Sc. Physics, or any equivalent course.

Exam Pattern

• 1. The MCQ test paper of each subject shall carry a maximum of 200 marks.
• 2. The exam shall be for a duration of three hours.
• 3. The question paper shall be divided in three parts -

PART A Syllabus in Detail

Part A of the Reasoning and Quantitative Aptitude section focuses on the candidates' analytical and logical thinking skills. It covers various topics such as analytical reasoning, syllogisms, analogies, data sufficiency, number series, and non-verbal reasoning. Additionally, it includes quantitative aptitude topics like simplifications, algebra, percentage, time and work, data interpretation, and graphical analysis. This section aims to assess the candidates' ability to solve problems, make logical deductions, and interpret data accurately, providing a comprehensive evaluation of their reasoning and quantitative aptitude skills.

• Analytical Reasoning
• Coding-Decoding
• Classification
• Alphabet Series
• Symbols and Notations
• Similarities and Differences
• Number Series
• Blood Relationships
• Arrangements
• Data Sufficiency
• Non-verbal Reasoning
• Visual Ability
• Graphical Analysis
• Data Analysis

Quantitative Aptitude

• Simplifications
• Number System
• PercentageTime & Work
• Simple & Compound Interest
• Time & Speed
• HCF, LCM Problems
• Profit & Loss
• Bar Graph, Pictorial Graph, Pie Chart
• Ratio & Proportion
• Permutation & Combination

Data Interpretation & Graphical Analysis

• Measures of Dispersion
• Graphical Analysis: Bar Graph, Line Graph, Pie-Chart and Tabulation

PART B&C Syllabus in Detail (Subject-specific)

1. csir net syllabus 2023 life science.

This syllabus covers a range of topics related to life sciences. It includes molecular interactions, cellular organization, developmental biology, system physiology (animal and plant), inheritance biology, diversity of life forms, ecological principles, and more. It also incorporates methods in biology and applied biology, offering a comprehensive understanding of biological concepts and their practical applications.

• Molecules and their Interaction Relevant to Biology
• Cellular Organization
• Cell Communication and Cell Signaling
• Fundamental Processes
• Developmental Biology
• System Physiology – Animal
• System Physiology – Plant
• Inheritance Biology
• Diversity of Life Forms
• Ecological Principles
• Methods in Biology
• Applied Biology
• Evolution and Behavior

2. CSIR NET Syllabus 2023 Chemical Science

The syllabus focuses on different branches of chemistry, including inorganic, physical, and organic chemistry. It also includes emerging areas such as nanoscience, catalysis, medicinal chemistry, supramolecular chemistry, and environmental chemistry. This syllabus provides a broad coverage of chemical principles and their applications in various fields.

• Inorganic Chemistry
• Physical Chemistry
• Organic Chemistry
• Chemistry in nanoscience and technology
• Catalysis and Green Chemistry
• Medicinal Chemistry
• Supramolecular Chemistry
• Environmental Chemistry

3. CSIR NET Syllabus 2023 Earth Science

This syllabus encompasses a wide range of topics related to the Earth and its various components. It covers the Earth's materials, surface features, atmosphere, oceans, and environmental aspects. In the geology section, it includes mineralogy, petrology, structural geology, paleontology, sedimentology, and other key areas, offering a comprehensive understanding of Earth's processes.

• The Earth and the Solar System
• Earth Materials, Surface Features, and Processes
• Interior of the Earth, Deformation and Tectonics
• Atmosphere and Ocean
• Environmental Earth Sciences

Part C (Geology)

• Mineralogy and Petrology
• Structural Geology and Geotectonic
• Paleontology and its Applications
• Sedimentology and Stratigraphy
• Marine Geology and Paleoceanography
• Geochemistry
• Economic Geology
• Precambrian Geology and Crustal Evolution
• Quaternary Geology
• Applied Geology
• Physical Geography
• Meteorology
• Ocean Sciences

4. CSIR NET Syllabus 2023 Mathematical Science

The syllabus focuses on mathematical analysis, algebra, linear algebra, complex analysis, and numerical analysis. It also covers topics such as differential equations, integral equations, data analysis, and calculus of variations. This syllabus equips candidates with a strong foundation in mathematical concepts and their applications in diverse areas.

• Linear Algebra
• Complex Analysis
• Numerical Analysis
• Ordinary Differential Equations (ODEs)
• Partial Differential Equations (PDEs)
• Linear Integral Equations
• Exploratory Data Analysis and Descriptive Statistics
• Calculus of Variations
• Classical Mechanics
• Descriptive Statistics, Exploratory Data Analysis

5. CSIR NET Syllabus 2023 Physical Science

This syllabus covers various branches of physics, including mathematical methods, electronics, thermodynamics, quantum mechanics, and electromagnetic theory. It emphasizes classical mechanics and experimental methods, providing a comprehensive understanding of the fundamental principles and applications in the field of physical science.

• Mathematical Methods of Physics
• Electronics and Experimental Methods
• Thermodynamic and Statistical Physics
• Quantum Mechanics
• Electromagnetic Theory

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PhD Entrance Test (PET)

The PhD Entrance Test (PET) can seem like a daunting obstacle on your journey towards academic enlightenment. But fret not, intrepid scholar! Understanding its purpose and structure can transform it from a scary monster to a manageable hurdle. Let’s delve into the secrets of the PET like valiant knights preparing for a battle:

Before entering the PET arena, know your goal. The test acts as a gatekeeper, assessing your potential for success in the rigorous world of PhD research. It seeks to answer a crucial question: Do you have the necessary skills and foundation to embark on this challenging quest?

The Sections:

The PET typically consists of two main sections:

• General Aptitude Test (GAT):  This tests your reasoning and analytical abilities, essential for navigating the complex landscapes of research. Think of it as agility tests, ensuring you have the mental nimbleness to tackle unforeseen challenges.
• Subject-Specific Test (SST):  This delves deeper into your chosen field, assessing your mastery of core concepts and your ability to think critically within your specific domain. Imagine it as wielding a specialized weapon, showcasing your expertise in the chosen area of research.

The Format:

Each section usually involves multiple-choice questions designed to test a spectrum of skills. The GAT might assess areas like:

• Verbal Reasoning:  Can you interpret information and draw logical conclusions from written passages?
• Quantitative Reasoning:  Are you comfortable with numbers and able to analyze numerical data?
• Logical Reasoning:  Can you identify patterns and inconsistencies in information to form sound arguments?
• Analytical Writing:  Can you clearly and concisely present your ideas in written form?

The SST will focus on the specific knowledge and skills relevant to your chosen field of research. It might contain questions related to:

• Core concepts and theories:  Do you have a solid understanding of the foundational principles in your field?
• Research methods and analysis:  Can you design research studies, collect data, and interpret results effectively?
• Critical thinking and problem-solving:  Can you analyze arguments, identify weaknesses, and propose solutions within your field?

Preparation and Strategies:

Just like any worthy knight prepares for battle, effective preparation is key to conquering the PET. Here are some tactics to hone your skills:

• Review the syllabus:  Familiarize yourself with the specific areas covered in both the GAT and SST.
• Practice with sample questions:  Plenty of sample papers and study materials are available online and in libraries. These provide valuable practice and help you gauge your strengths and weaknesses.
• Join study groups and workshops:  Connecting with other aspiring PhD students can be a great way to share resources, strategies, and motivation.
• Seek guidance from your advisor or mentors:  Don’t hesitate to consult with faculty members in your field. They can offer valuable insights and guidance tailored to your specific research area.

The PET is just one element of your PhD journey. While it’s important to perform well, don’t let it define your potential. Stay focused on your passion for research, develop your skills, and believe in your ability to succeed. With dedication and perseverance, you’ll conquer the PET and embark on your exciting academic adventure!

So, brave scholar, approach the PET not with fear, but with the confidence of a well-prepared warrior. Remember, knowledge is your weapon, critical thinking your shield, and your unwavering passion for research your guiding compass. Go forth, conquer the test, and claim your rightful place in the hallowed halls of academia!

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Research Admissions (PhD/MTech(Research)) 2022

Important news.

• The Provisional Merit List for the Research Interviews has been posted (3PM, 28 May, 2022) .
• The list of candidates (Application ID) selected for the Phase 2 of the research admission process (in-person interview at CDS, IISc between 23-27 May is available here . Please attend as per your call letter.

Important Dates

• Email from CDS informing the shortlisted Candidates about information sessions and aptitude test – Sent on 29 April 2022
• Online Information Session about CDS, doing research, interview preparation – 3 May 2022 (Tuesday) at 4 pm . Recording is available on the YouTube Link .
• Online Information Session with ATCG, CMG, QUEST, AMCL, BioMedIA Labs in Aug 2022 cycle – 4 May 2022 (Wednesday) at 4 pm . 
• Online Information Session with CSL, DREAM, MARS, VAL, VCL labs (accepting only EECS background students) in Aug 2022 cycle – 5 May 2022 (Thursday) at 4 pm . 
• YouTube Playlist with Lab Introductions is here .
• Online Research Aptitude Test – 10 May 2022 (Tuesday) at 3 pm.
• In-Person Oral Interviews  23-27 May 2022

Application Eligibility

• B.E./B. Tech. or equivalent degree in any discipline, or
• M.Sc. or equivalent degree in Mathematical Sciences, Physical Sciences, Electronics, Instrumentation, Computer Science, or
• Masters in Computer Application or Graduates of 4-year Bachelor of Science programmes (B.S).
• GATE/NET JRF score is required for students with a BE/BTech/B.S/M.Sc./MCA.
• GATE/NET JRF is not required for students with a B.E./B.Tech/B.S. from Centrally Funded Technical Institutions (IIT/IISER/NIT, etc.) , with a minimum CGPA of 8.0 out of 10 applying for a Ph.D.
• Students with a B.E./B.Tech/B.S. are eligible to apply for a direct Ph.D. This is encouraged.
• Complete details are on the IISc admissions page .
• IISc Admissions Website
• IISc Online Admissions Application
• Why do a Ph.D. at CDS?

Overview of the Admission Process

Research activities at the Department of Computational and Data Sciences (CDS) are categorized into two streams: Computational Science (CDS-CP) and Computer and Data systems (CDS-CS) . The admissions process is common to both streams.

The admission process for the Aug 2022 cycle comprises two phases. Phase I will be an online aptitude test on the HackerEarth platform, which serves as the first part of the evaluation and Phase II will be an in-person oral interview for all candidates who qualified in the aptitude test conducted in Phase I.

Candidates shortlisted for the online aptitude test (Phase I of interview) will receive a call letter or email from the IISc Admissions office (please login to the IISc admissions portal and check for the call letter). The aptitude test is scheduled on 10 May 2022 (Tuesday) at 3 pm . You will receive a separate email from the CDS department for your test and instructions such as the test link, rules, guidelines, practice test, etc. This online aptitude test is of 75 minutes duration. This will have multiple choice and programming questions as per the syllabus given below. 

The Phase II in-person oral interview is only for students who qualified in the online aptitude test conducted in Phase I. The day after the aptitude test, an email with the results will be sent to you. In case you qualify, your interview date and session will be as listed in the call letter from IISc Admissions Office. The syllabus for the interview (similar to the aptitude test, with lab-specific readings) is also given in detail below.

About a week before the oral interview, the shortlisted candidates will be sent an email from the CDS department to fill out an online student information Google form . This must be completed and submitted in order to participate in the oral interview. As part of this, candidates should choose up to three labs for which they will be considered. These labs are described below. Orientation sessions and lab introductions to help candidates make the right choice based on their interest will be conducted online through webinars for which shortlisted candidates will be invited.

Pre-interview familiarization of CDS and lab introductions will be conducted through webinars and dates will be displayed on the CDS Research Admissions Website.

Online Aptitude Test

The Phase I online objective and programming test will be conducted using the “HackerEarth” online platform. Candidates will need a desktop/laptop with an internet connection, Chrome, Firefox or Safari browsers, and a webcam . Candidates will be sent an email with a link to the online test a few days before the test date. The test will be enabled at the start of your session and will last for 75 mins. It must be completed in a single sitting. You will need to create a free HackerEarth account to take the test. You MUST use the same email address as the one used for your IISc Admissions Application. Please do this ahead of time. That email will also have another link to let you take a practice test , to test your browser and webcam, and get familiar with HackerEarth. These practice questions are not from the test syllabus. Candidates may take the practice test as many times as they want. Candidates should get familiar with the programming IDE, compilation, and testing interface of HackerEarth to ensure that the programming questions are attempted properly.

The online aptitude test will have 15 questions. There will be 12 multiple choice questions and 3 programming questions. The topics for the objective test are:

• Combinatorics, Linear Algebra/Matrices, Probability and Statistics, Differential Equations, Plotting, Data Structures and Algorithms.

The programming languages that you can use are C, C++ and Java . The HackerEarth interface will allow you to type the program, compile it and run test cases, all within the browser. We will provide a basic code template for reading and writing the inputs and outputs for each problem. The candidates should focus on the actual code logic and brush up on concepts such as if/then/else conditions, for/while loops and arrays/data structures.

Students are encouraged to first solve the problems that they are comfortable with and then move on to more difficult problems.

Sample questions from previous year tests are available here .

In-Person Oral Interview

Students who qualify in the online aptitude test (Phase I of the interview) will attend an in-person oral interview at the CDS Department, IISc (Phase II of the interview). In the oral interview, you will be questioned on the following basic topics, and on advanced topics that are based on your lab preferences:

Basic Topics : Linear Algebra; Probability & Statistics; Programming, Data Structures, Algorithms; Numerical Methods; Ordinary Differential Equations; Discrete Mathematics.  Final year undergraduate level preparation is required.

Advanced Topics: You will be questioned on the topics related to labs selected in the student information Google form. The topics for each lab and the prior training expected are listed below. Candidates choosing a lab must be prepared on at least one of the lab-related interview topics.

Note: Most labs give preference to applicants for the Ph.D. program over the M.Tech. (Research) program. Some labs may not even take any students for the M.Tech. (Research) program. Students with a B.E./B.Tech degree are also eligible to apply for the Ph.D. program.

Candidates for the Ph.D. program should prepare well on their fundamentals, come with a focus and knowledge of the research areas they would like to target in their PhD, and have clarity on the preferred lab(s) and the kind of work done in them. Review the research topics and the papers from the labs you are interested in.

The 2022 Research Admission Brochure can be viewed here :

Recent News

• Fujitsu Limited and IISc sign MoU for collaboration in data science
• Provisional List of Candidates Shortlisted for CDS Research Program 2024
• Provisional List of Candidates shortlisted for MTech CDS Program 2024
• CDS students win Best Student Presentation Awards at the EECS Symposium
• NPCI Joins Hands with IISc Bangalore for Joint Research on Blockchain and AI Technology

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Ph.D. Admission Notification: 2024

Applications are invited from eligible candidates for admission into Ph.D. program (Full Time / Part Time) in Himalayan University as per UGC guidelines and Ph.D. rules and regulations of the university in different subjects based on the availability of vacancy in different departments for the session 2024.

Agriculture, History, English, Education, Management, Geography, Political Science, Botany, Zoology, Chemistry, Civil Engineering, Law, Nursing, Library Science.

PG with minimum 55% marks (5% relaxations for SC/ST/OBC/Minority Community) in respective subjects from a recognized university. The selection of the candidates shall be made as per latest guidelines of UGC i.e., considering 70% written examination performance and 30% from viva-voce.

The candidate who has an M.Phil. (regular two-year course) degree, or have qualified NET/SET shall entitle to get exemption from written test and shall be called directly for an interview.

• Candidate should apply in the prescribed application form available on university website https://www.himalayanuniversity.com
• Candidate have to pay the application form fee of Rs. 2500 online through Credit Card / Debit Card / Net Banking Or by cash in Accounts Section, Administrative Block, Himalayan University. Account Name – Himalayan University, Bank Name – Yes Bank, IFSC-YESB0000150 Account Number – 008094600000470, Branch – Itanagar.
• After payment, the downloaded filled form along with payment receipt and all testimonials are to be submitted to the office of the Dean Research, Himalayan University, Itanagar, Arunachal Pradesh, Pin -791113 or send scaned copy of duly filled application form at [email protected]
• University is not liable for any postal delay. No application form will be accepted after the due date.
• Incomplete application in any manner will be rejected.

Download Application Form

• Last date for submission of application - 30th May, 2024
• Date of Entrance Examination - 9th June, 2024
• Mode of Examination - offline / Online

For any query kindly contact: +91 9999412034

Minimum 3 years and maximum 6 years.

• Registration Fee: 11,000
• Semester Fee: 45,000 for Arts, Commerce and Management | 55,000 for Engineering& Science Stream | 65,000 for Paramedical Stream
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PHD ENTRANCE TEST (MOST ASKED MCQs)

2 marks for right answers and -0.5 marks for wrong answers!

This quiz is a part of most asked questions from entrance exams. After completing it you can open more mock tests.

1. Cellulose is composed of

• α-D- galactopyranose units
• ß-D- galactopyranose units
• α-D- glucopyranose units
• ß-D- glucopyranose units

Cellulose is a polysaccharide composed of  a linear chain of β-1,4 linked d-glucose units  with a degree of polymerization ranged from several hundreds to over ten thousands, which is the most abundant organic polymer on the earth

2. Toluene is nitrated and the resulting product is reduced with tin and hydrochloric acid. The product so obtained is diazotized and then heated with cuprous bromide. The reaction mixture so formed contains

Answer  (a) mixture of o− and p−bromotoluenes

3. Taxol, the well-known anticancer drug, is derived from the needles of

NCI-funded research delivers a breakthrough discovery with paclitaxel (Taxol), a cancer drug from  the bark of the Pacific yew tree  that expands treatment options for patients with breast and ovarian cancers

4. McLafferty Rearrangement is observed in

The  McLafferty rearrangement  is a well-known process in mass spectrometry

5. Vanadium pentaoxide is

Vanadium pentoxide  has an orthorhombic structure with Space group Pmmn and lattice parameters of a = 11.51 Å,  b =4.37 Å, and  c =3.56 Å.

Pure V2O5 is a  diamagnetic  layered semiconductor with many applications such as catalysis

6. A basic buffer is prepared by mixing

Basic buffer has a basic pH and is prepared by  mixing a weak base and its salt with strong acid . The aqueous solution of an equal concentration of ammonium hydroxide and ammonium chloride has a pH of 9.25

7. While moving Left to Right in the periodic table, electronegativity of the elements

8. At a certain temperature only 50% HI is dissociated at equilibrium in the following reaction

2HI(g) ——–> H2  + I2(g)

the equilibrium constant for the reaction is

a                              0          0

a(1-0.5)                 0.25a    0.25a

k=(0.25a x 0.25a) / (0.5a)^2

9. The product(s) of a Beckmann Rearrangement is

Beckmann rearrangement consists generally of an alkyl migration anti-periplanar to the expulsion of a leaving group to form a nitrilium ion. This is followed by solvolysis to an imidate and then tautomerization to the amide

10. Which one of the following indicators works in the pH range 1-4.4?

The working pH range for indicators is as follows:

Phenolphthalein- 8.3-10.0

Litmus- 5.0-8.0

Methyl red- 4.2- 6.3

Methyl orange- 3.1-4.4

11. α-D-(+)-glucose and β-D-(+)-glucose are

Answer  (c) anomers

12. In thiophene ‘S’ atom is in ——–hybridized state

Thiophene  is cyclic, planar, the sulfur atom present in it is  sp2  hybridized

13. Huckel rule is associated with

14. Which one of the following is most reactive towards nucleophile attack?

The substituent on the benzene ring has an effect on the reactivity of the aromatic ring. Effects such as inductive effect wherein the electronegativity of the substituent attached is greater which therefore pulls the electron density towards itself. For example, Nitrogen, Oxygen and halogens are more electronegative than the Carbon on the ring therefore, it pulls the electron density towards itself and therefore deactivating the ring. Deactivation of the ring implies that the reaction would be slower and activating the aromatic ring on the other hand means that the reaction would be faster. Another thing to consider in nucleophilic aromatic substitution is the site of where nucleophilic attack takes place. There are different orientation of reaction depending how substituted the ring is. It could be ortho, meta or para to the substituent (if it’s monosubstituted). So when these two factors that are taken into consideration are combined, it will then tell us the reactivity and where the nucleophile will attack/or direct the new substituent and also tell us which of the product will form in majority.

15. 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 32 minutes. When (minutes) was 50% of the reaction completed?

Correct option 16 mins

For a first-order reaction, we have: t 75% ​=2t 50% ​

Given: t75%​=32 min

Substituting the values in the above expression, we get-

32 min =2 t50%​

t50%​=16 mins

Hence, 50% of the reaction would have been completed in 16 mins.

16. Which of the following is the principle class (es) of pericyclic reactions?

The four principle classes of pericyclic reactions are termed: Cycloaddition, Electrocyclic, Sigmatropic, and Ene Reactions

17. Alkaloids in a plant extract can be detected with the aid of

Chemical Tests for the Detection of Alkaloids:

• Mayer’s test:
• Dragendorff’s test:
• Wagner’s test:
• Marme’s test:

18. The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of

The two polynucleotide chains or strands of DNA are linked up by hydrogen bonding between the nitrogenous base molecules of their nucleotide monomers.

 Adenine-Thymine (two hydrogen bonds) and Cytosine-Guanine (three hydrogen bonds).

19. Larger number of oxidation states are exhibited by the actinoids than those by the lanthanoids, the main reason being

Answer  (b) lesser energy difference between 5f and 6d than between 4f and 5d orbitals

• Compound A (C3 H6 O) with dil. NaOH gives B (C6 H12O2 ) which on reduction with aluminiumisopropoxide in IsoPr-OH gives C (C6 H14 O2 ). IR of A shows very strong band at 1716 cm-1 , moderate absorption at 2995 cm-1 , strong absorption at 1360 cm-1 and medium at 1460 cm-1 while B shows strong absorption at 1705 cm-1 , broad absorption with medium intensity at 3540 cm-1, moderately strong absorption at 1462 cm-1 and 1193 cm-1 while C shows very strong absorption at 3340 cm-1 and no absorption in the region 1800- 1600 cm-1 . What are A,B. and C respectively?

the most characteristics absorption band in the spectrum of 2-hexanone is that from the stretching vibration of carbonyl double bond C=O, at 1716 cm -1 .  It is a very strong band comparing to the others on the spectrum.  A strong absorbance band in the 1650-1750 cm -1   region indicate that a carbonyl group (C=O) is present .  Within that range, carboxylic acids, esters, ketones and aldehydes tend to absorb in the higher wavenumber/frequency end (1700-1750 cm -1 ), while conjugated unsaturated ketones and amides tend to absorb on the lower wavenumber/frequency end (1650-1700 cm -1 ).

no negative marking please check answer yourself.

21. Which of the following types of metals make the most efficient catalysts?

Transition metals can form unstable intermediate products with suitable reactants. These intermediate products lower the activation energy of the reaction which makes the reaction faster. So,  transition elements  are the most efficient catalysts.

22. Using the standard half cell potential listed, calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction:

Co(s) + 2H+(aq)    —->    Co+2 (aq) + H2(g)

Given    Eo(Co+2/Co) = -0.277 V

• 4.8 x 10^11

-2.303RTlogK=-nfE

log K =9.369

k=10^9.369 == 2.3 x 10^9

23. A monoprotic acid in 0.1M solution ionizes to 0.001%. Its ionization constant is

C=0.1M , %α=0.001

0.1 x (0.001/100)^2

= 1x 10^-11

24. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is K and the reaction quotient is Q for a particular reaction mixture the ratio K/Q is 0.33. This means;

We know that for a reaction if K/Q​<1, the reaction proceeds in backward direction. Hence, the reaction mixture forms more reactant species.

25. Metallocene are

A  metallocene is  a compound typically consisting of two cyclopentadienyl anions bound to a … “Group 4 Transition Metal Sandwich Complexes.

26. Enzymes are good example of

27. Which of the following is a Sol?

28. The structure of the noble gas compound XeF6 is

29. Amount of oxalic acid present in a solution can be determined by its titration with KMnO4 solution in the presence of H2SO4. The titration gives unsatisfactory result when carried out in the presence of HCl, because HCl

Answer  (c) reduces permanganate to Mn2+

• Match the following List A with reactions in List B

List A                                               List B

• I) CHCl3                                        (p) Crabylamine reaction
• II) CHCl3 / CCl4 and KOH        (q) Hunsdiecker reaction
• III) RCOOAg + Br2                      (r) Sandmayer reaction
• IV) C6H5N +Cl-                           (s) Reimer Tiemen reaction

Amine is heated with alcoholic potassium hydroxide and chloroform. If a primary amine is present, the isocyanide is formed. The reaction is known as carbylamine reaction. (HERE ALL MAY BE WRONG) CHECK ANSWER PLZ.

31. Among the following substituted silanes the one which will give rise to cross linked silicone polymer on hydrolysis is

Answer  (b) RSiCl3

32. IUPAC name of Levulose is

(3S,4R,5R)-1,3,4,5,6-Pentahydroxyhexan-2-one

33. Which of the following elements is isodiapher of 92U235 ?

Isodiaphers are  a set of nuclides that have a different number of protons and neutrons , but there is the same difference between the protons and neutrons

34. Which one of the following pairs of species have the same bond order?

Answer  (a)   CN− and NO+

35. In a compound atoms of element Y from ccp lattice and those of element X occupy 2/3rd of tetrahedral voids. The formula of the compound will be

Answer  (a) X4Y3

36. Calculate the emf of the cell: Cu(s) | Cu+2 (aq.) || Ag+ (aq.) | Ag (s)

Given that, E0 (Cu+2  / Cu) = 0.34 V and E0 (Ag+ / Ag) = 0.80 V

37. 75% of a first order reaction was completed in 32 minutes. When (minutes) was 50% of the reaction completed?

38. Halides of alkaline earth metals form hydrates of formula MX2. n H2O. This shows the halides of group 2 elements

Halides of alkaline earth metals form hydrate so they are hygroscopic in nature. Due this nature they can be used as water absorbing compounds. Thats why they can act as dehydrating agents and can absorb moisture from air.

39. Which of the following changes the value of K for a reaction?

Increase (or decrease) in temperature will change the value of K for reaction. Addition of catalyst, increase in pressure and removal of one of the products will not change the value of K for reaction. The value of K (the equilibrium constant) for reaction depends only on  temperature and is independent of the pressure or concentrations of reactants/products, presence of catalyst etc.

40. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

Answer  (c) Chlorides of both beryllium and aluminium have bridged chloride structures in solid phase

41. As we proceed from Left to Right in a period

From left to right on the periodic table, acid-base character of oxides and hydroxides go from basic to acidic.

• Phytochemistry
• Photochemistry
• Electrochemistry
• Colloidal chemistry

Photoisomerization is the photochemical cis-trans isomerization of organic molecules with a double bond in their structure. This reaction is a common photo-reaction

Phytochemistry  is the study of phytochemicals, which are chemicals derived from plants. Phytochemists strive to describe the structures of the large molecule.

43. Isoprene is the constituent unit of

Terpenes are linear or cyclic compounds composed of  isoprene units  which can be saturated…

44. When ammonia is heated with HCl, H-N-H bond angle

We know that NH3 has a bond angle of 107 ∘ . This bond angle is less as compared to the tetrahedral angle, owing to the increase in the repulsion to bond pairs. This happens due to the presence of lone pairs of nitrogen.

Now on reacting with HCl, NH3 results in the formation of NH4Cl. The reaction is given below:

NH3 + HCl→ NH4Cl

In this case, NH4+ has no longer any lone pair at nitrogen. Hence, the ammonium ion is perfectly tetrahedral, just like the CH4. So, now the bond angle is 109.5 ∘ .

Therefore, we can say that when NH3 is treated with HCl, H — N — H the bond angle increases.

45. Which of the followings is widely used to oxidise alkenes to the vicinal diols

Osmium tetroxide oxidizes alkenes  to give glycols through syn addition. A glycol, also known as a  vicinal diol

46. How many isomers of xylene are possible?

Xylene exists in  three isomeric  forms. The isomers can be distinguished by the designations ortho- (o-), meta- (m-) and para- (p-), which specify to which carbon atoms (of the benzene ring) the two methyl groups are attached.

47. Which of the following is a common reagent used in IR spectroscopy?

Potassium bromide (KBr, spectroscopic grade) is typically used as the  window material because it is transparent in the IR, between 4000–400 cm-1

48. Which of the following factors is of no significance for roasting sulphide ores to the oxides and not subjecting the sulphide ores to carbon reduction directly ?

Answer  (a) Metal sulphides are thermodynamically more stable than CS2

49. The amount of 6C14 isotope in a piece of wood is found to be 1/5 th of that present in a fresh piece of wood. What is the age of the wood? (Half life of 14C is 5577 years)

given N=N0/5

T=[(2.303 X T½ )log(N/N0)]/0.693

50. In a reaction proceeded by SN1 mechanism the stereochemical nature of product is

SN1 usually gives a mixture of products with inversion and retention of configuration Thus it leads to racemisation. SN2 reaction takes place through a back-side attack, which inverts the stereochemistry of the carbon atom i.e   Complete inversion of configuration takes place.

51. Malachite and azurite are used respectively as

Azurite is a soft, deep blue copper mineral produced by weathering of copper ore deposits. The blue of azurite is exceptionally deep and clear. Specimens tend to lighten in color over time due to weathering of the specimen surface into malachite; this is why they are found together.

they are mainly Green and blue pigment

52. The respective primary and secondary suffix for an acid anhydride are

The acid anhydride functional group results when two carboxylic acids combine and lose water (anhydride = without water). Symmetrical acid anhydrides are named like carboxylic acids except the ending  -acid  is replaced with  -anhydride . This is true for both the IUPAC and Common nomenclature.

53. Phenol, when it first reacts with concentrated sulphuric acid and then with concentrated nitric acid, gives

Answer  (b) o-nitrophenol

54. Which of the following methods is suitable for estimating the carbohydrate content

Among many colorimetric methods for carbohydrate analysis, the phenol-sulfuric acid method is the easiest and most reliable method. It has been used for  measuring neutral sugars  in oligosaccharides, proteoglycans, glycoproteins, and glycolipids. This method is used widely because of its sensitivity and simplicity

55. At 25º C, a 0.01 mole sample of a gas is compressed in volume from 4 litre to 1 litre at constant temperature. What is the work done in the process if the external pressure is 4 bar?

External pressure (P)=4 bar=3.95 atm

Initial volume (V1​)=4L

Final volume (V2​)=1L

No. of moles (n)=0.001 mole

R=8.314L−atmK−1mol−1

For an isothermal process,

Work done (W)=−PΔV

∴W=−3.95×(1−4)=11.85L.atm=1200.7605=1.2×10^3 J

Hence the work done for the given process is 1.2×10^3J.

56. Two reactions proceed at 25°C at the same rate. The temperature coefficient of the rate of the first reaction is 2, and that of the second reaction is 2.5.

The ratio of rates of these reactions at 95°C would be

Ist order, r1=k[A]

r1/r2=K1/K2

57. Which of the following solvents is the greenest solvent?

The idea of “green” solvent implies to reduce the environmental impact resulting from its use in chemical processes. In this sense, water can be considered as a potentially green solvent  since is non-toxic to health and the environment . Moreover, it is the safest and least expensive solvent.

58. In thermodynamics, a process is called reversible because

During the reversible process, the system is in thermodynamic equilibrium with its surroundings. On being reversible, it does not leave any change in either the system or the surroundings. Since it takes an infinite time for a reversible process to finish, hence, perfectly reversible processes are not possible. a process is called reversible when the surroundings are always in equilibrium with system. So, the correct answer is “Option C”.

59. Salt of which of the following is used in volumetric analysis?

Cerium (IV)  salts , especially  cerium (IV) sulfate, are often  used  as standard reagents for  volumetric analysis  in cerimetric titrations.

60. A non polar side chain is observed in which of the following amino acids

For non-polar side chains, the amino acids are:  Alanine  (A), Valine (V), Leucine (L), Isoleucine (I), Proline (P), Phenylalanine (F), Methionine (M), Tryptophan (W), Glycine (G) and Cysteine (C).

Neutral Amino acids: Glycine, Alanine, leucine, Isoleucine, valine, phenylalanine, Proline, methionine, serine, threonine, tyrosine, cysteine, glutamine, asparagine, tryptophan.

Acidic amino acids: Aspartic acid, glutamic acid

Basic amino acids: Lysine, histidine, Arginine

61. On the basis of the electrical conductivity, solids are divided into

In metals, the conduction band is either partially filled or the valence band is partially empty. There are electrons that behave as free electrons as they shift to higher energy levels by acquiring energy above the Fermi level in the conduction band. There is no forbidden energy gap in the metals. Since there is no forbidden gap, the number of electrons available for the conduction is more increasing the conductivity of the material. Metals behave as a conductor because of the movement of the free electrons when a small amount of electric current is applied.

Insulators:

In insulators, the valence band is completely filled while the conduction band is empty. This results in a large energy gap. Since the energy gap between the conduction band and the valence band is more, there is no movement of electrons from the valence band to the conduction band.

Semiconductor:

In a semiconductor, the valence band is completely filled with electrons while the conduction band is empty. The energy gap between the bands is less. For electrons to jump from the valence band to the conduction band, room temperature needs to be maintained. If the temperature is 0K, there is no transfer of electrons from the valence band to the conduction band.

hello……

these are nice mqs for preparation

Very nice and important questions in this mock test sir give again some mock test for practice

MCQ preparation very nice

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Declaration of Final Result for Junior Assistant-cum-Typist (JAT) of Indira Gandhi National Open University(IGNOU) recruitment exam 2023  Read More 

City intimation of National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (UG) – 2023  Read More 

Declaration of Results of the July 2022-Semester Exams (written exam component) of the courses under the Study Webs of Active–Learning for Young Aspiring Minds (SWAYAM)-LOT-II  Read More 

Correction in Category of the Online Application Form of Joint Entrance Examination (Main) – 2023  Read More 

Clarification regarding the medium of the Question Paper for NEET (UG)-2023  Read More 

Display of Score Card for UGC-NET December 2022 cycle  Read More 

Declaration of results of UGC-NET December 2022 cycle  Read More 

Release of Admit Cards for the Candidates of JEE (Main) – 2023 Session 2 (April 2023) scheduled to appear on 15 April 2023  Read More 

Release of Admit Cards for the Candidates of JEE (Main) – 2023 Session 2 (April 2023) scheduled to appear on 13 April 2023  Read More 

Release of Admit Cards for the Candidates of JEE (Main) – 2023 Session 2 (April 2023) scheduled to appear on 11 April 2023 and 12 April 2023  Read More 

Reopening the Online Application Form of National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (UG) – 2023  Read More 

Re-opening the Registration for Online Application Forms of the Common University Entrance Test [CUET (UG)] - 2023 Examination  Read More 

Release of Admit Cards for the Candidates of Joint Entrance Examination (Main) – 2023 Session 2 (April 2023) scheduled to appear on 10 April 2023  Read More 

Inviting Online Applications for Joint Integrated Programme in Management Admission Test (JIPMAT) - 2023  Read More 

Release of Admit Cards for the Candidates of Joint Entrance Examination (Main) – 2023 Session 2 (April 2023) scheduled to appear on 08 April 2023  Read More 

Advance Intimation for Allotment of Examination City to the Applicants of Joint Entrance Examination (Main) – 2023 Session 2  Read More 

Extension of Graduate Aptitude Test- Biotechnology (GAT-B) / Biotechnology Eligibility Test (BET) – 2023 Online Application Form Submission.  Read More 

Corrigendum for Common University Entrance Test [CUET-(PG) 2023]  Read More 

Alerts against fake information being provided on Social Media Platforms regarding Joint Entrance Examination (Main) – 2023 Session 2 - Reg.  Read More 

Inviting Online Applications for IGNOU Recruitment of Junior Assistant-cum-Typist (JAT) 2023  Read More 

Inviting Online Applications for Common University Entrance Test [CUET (PG) - 2023]  Read More 

Reopening of Registration window for Joint Entrance Examination (Main) –2023 Session 2  Read More 

Clarification regarding the SC/ST Certificate for NEET(UG)-2023.  Read More 

Extending the Registration for online Application Forms of the Common University Entrance Test [CUET (UG)] - 2023 Examination  Read More 

PUBLIC NOTICE: Inviting Online Applications for Graduate Aptitude Test- Biotechnology (GAT-B) / Biotechnology Eligibility Test (BET) - 2023  Read More 

Release of Admit Card for UGC NET December 2022-Phase-V to be held between 13 and 15 March 2023  Read More 

PUBLIC NOTICE: Help Centres for Common University Entrance Test [CUET (UG)] - 2023 Examination – reg.  Read More 

Release of Admit Card for UGC NET December 2022-Phase-IV to be held on 11 and 12 March 2023-reg.  Read More 

Advance Intimation for Allotment of Examination City to the Applicants of UGC NET December 2022-Phase-V- Reg.   Read More 

Advance Intimation for Allotment of Examination City to the Applicants of UGC NET December 2022-Phase-IV- Reg.  Read More 

Opening of CUET (UG) - 2023 Examination Help Centres– reg  Read More 

Release of Admit Card for UGC NET December 2022-Phase-III  Read More 

PUBLIC NOTICE: Opening of CUET (UG) - 2023 Examination Help Centres– reg.  Read More 

Release of Admit Card for UGC NET December 2022-Phase-II to be held on 28 February 2023, 01 and 02 March 2023-reg.  Read More 

PUBLIC NOTICE: Release of Admit Card for UGC NET December 2022-Phase-I  Read More 

PUBLIC NOTICE: Inviting Online Applications for Joint Entrance Examination (Main) – 2023 Session 2 – Reg.  Read More 

संयुक्त प्रवेश परीक्षा (मुख्य) – 2023 सत्र 2 के लिए ऑनलाइन आवेदन आमंत्रित करने के सम्बन्ध में  Read More 

Public Notice for GPAT-2023 Registration  Read More 

Date and Subject- wise Schedule for UGC-NET December 2022, Phase-I –reg.  Read More 

PUBLIC NOTICE: Revision of Scores of Joint CSIR-UGC NET June 2020 for Subject Mathematical Sciences  Read More 

National Testing Agency (NTA) is a registered society under the Societies Registration Act, 1860. The NTA will conduct all exams in following domains:

• Engineering

Joint Entrance Examination - (Main)

National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test - (UG)

All India Sainik School Entrance Exam

National Institute of Fashion Technology

Hotel Management

Hospitality and Hotel Administration

CSIR-National Eligibility Test (CSIR-NET)

Agricultural

Indian Council of Agricultural Research

INDIAN INSTITUTE OF FOREIGN TRADE

Indira Gandhi National Open University

Swayam Examination

ANNUAL REFRESHER PROGRAMME IN TEACHING

Sports Authority of India

Study in India

Mock Test @TPC

• College/University

Engineering Exam

Joint Entrance Examination (JEE) MAIN will be conducted by the NTA from 2019 onwards. This Examination was being conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) till 2018.

JEE Main is applicable for admission to NITs, IIITs and CFTIs participating though Central Seat Allocation Board subject to the condition that the candidate should have secured at least 75% marks in the 12th class examination, or be in the top 20 percentile in the 12th class examination conducted by the respective Boards. For SC/ST candidates the qualifying marks would be 65% in the 12thclass examination.

Subject combinations required in the qualifying examination for admission to B.E./B.Tech. & B. Arch./B. Planning Courses in NITs, IIITs, and other CFTIs is as under:-

The above mentioned policy could also be adopted by other Technical Institutions participating in counselling through JoSAA/CSAB. In case a State opts to admit students in the engineering Colleges affiliated to State Universities, the State may prepare separate rank list based on criteria decided by them.

Medical Exam

The National Eligibility Cum Entrance Test (NEET) UG will be conducted by the NTA from 2019 onwards. This Test was being conducted by the Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) till 2018. NEET (UG) is applicable for admission to MBBS/BDS Courses in India in Medical/Dental Colleges run with the approval of Medical Council of India/Dental Council of India under the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India except for the institutions established through an Act of Parliament i.e. AIIMS and JIPMER Puducherry.

The responsibility of the NTA will limited to the conduct of the entrance examination, declaration of result and providing All India Rank to the Directorate General Health Services, Government of India for the conduct of counselling for 15% All India Quota Seats and for supplying the result to state/other Counselling Authorities.

Management Exam

Common Management Admission Test (CMAT) is a national level entrance examination for entry into management programmes. Till 2018, it was conducted by All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) every year as per the directions of Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India. The Test will now be conducted by the NTA. The CMAT is a three hour computer based online test which is conducted in a single session to evaluate the candidate's ability across various segments like Quantitative Technique, Logical Reasoning, Language Comprehension and General Awareness.

This test facilitates Institutions to select suitable graduate candidates for admission in all Management programs.

The CMAT score is accepted by all AICTE-Approved Institutions/University Departments/Constituent Colleges/Affiliated Colleges. The CMAT 2018 will be conducted on 20th January 2018.

Eligibility for CMAT 2019

• Applicant must be a citizen of India.
• Graduates in any discipline can apply for CMAT exam.
• Final year students of Graduate Courses (10+2+3) whose result will be declared before commencement of admission for academic year 2019-20 can also apply for CMAT online exam.

Pharmacy Exam

GRADUATE PHARMACY APTITUDE TEST (GPAT) is a national level entrance examination for entry into M.Pharm programmes. Till 2018, it was conducted by All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE) every year as per the directions of Ministry of Education (MoE), Government of India. The Test will now be conducted by the NTA.

This test facilitates institutions to select suitable Pharmacy graduates for admission into the Master's (M.Pharm) program. The GPAT is a three hour computer based online test which is conducted in a single session. The GPAT score is accepted by all AICTE-Approved Institutions/University Departments/Constituent Colleges/Affiliated Colleges. A few scholarships and other financial assistance in the field of Pharmacy are also given on the basis of the GPAT score.

Eligibility for GPAT 2019

• They must be Bachelor's degree holders in Pharmacy (4 years after 10+2, including lateral entry candidates).
• Those who are in the final year of B. Pharmacy course are also eligible for appearing in GPAT exam.
• B.Tech (Pharmaceutical and fine chemical technology) / Equivalent Students are not eligible to appear for GPAT examination.

College/University Teaching & Fellowship Exam

On behalf of UGC, the National Eligibility Test (NET) is conducted for determining the eligibility of Indian nationals for the Eligibility for Assistant Professor only or Junior Research Fellowship & Eligibility for Assistant Professor Both in Indian Universities and Colleges.

Till recently, the CBSE conducted the NET in 84 subjects at 91 selected Cities of spread across the country.

From Dec 2018 onwards, the UGC- NET (for Eligibility for Assistant Professor only or Junior Research Fellowship & Eligibility for Assistant Professor both), will be conducted by the NTA.

The award of JRF and Eligibility for Assistant Professor both OR Eligibility for Assistant Professor only depends on the performance of the candidate in both the papers of NET in aggregate. However, the candidates qualifying exclusively for Assistant Professor are not to be considered for award of JRF. Candidates who qualify the Test for eligibility for Assistant Professor are governed by the rules and regulations for recruitment of Assistant Professor of the concerned universities/colleges/state governments, as the case may be.

Eligibility

Candidates who have secured at least 55% marks (without rounding off) in Master s Degree OR equivalent examination from universities/institutions recognised by UGC (on the website: https://www.ugc.ac.in/oldpdf/consolidated%20list%20of%20All%20universities.pdf) in Humanities (including languages) and Social Science, Computer Science & Applications, Electronic Science etc. are eligible for this Test.

The Other Backward Classes(OBC) belonging to non-creamy layer/Scheduled Caste(SC)/Scheduled Tribe(ST)/ persons with disability(PwD) category candidates who have secured at least 50% marks (without rounding off) in Master s degree or equivalent examination are eligible for this Test.

Candidates who are pursuing their Master's degree or equivalent course or candidates who have appeared for their qualifying Master s degree (final year) examination and whose result is still awaited or candidates whose qualifying examinations have been delayed may also apply for this test. However, such candidates will be admitted provisionally and shall be considered eligible for award of Junior Research Fellowship/eligibility for Assistant Professor only after they have passed their Master's Degree OR equivalent examination with at least 55% marks (50% marks in case of OBC falling in Non-Creamy layer/SC/ST/PwD (persons with disability)) category candidates. Such candidates must complete their Masters degree or equivalent examination within two years from the date of NET result with required percentage of marks, failing which they shall be treated as disqualified.

Candidates belonging to third gender in other words transgender would be eligible to draw the same relaxation in fee, age and qualifying criteria for NET (i.e. Junior Research Fellowship and Assistant Professor) as are available to SC/ST/PwD categories. The subject wise cut-offs for this category should be the lowest among those for SC/ST/PwD/OBC NCL categories in the corresponding subject.

The Ph.D. degree holders whose Master s level examination had been completed by 19th September 1991 (irrespective of date of declaration of result) shall be eligible for a relaxation of 5% in aggregate marks (i.e. from 55% to 50%) for appearing in NET.

Candidates are advised to appear in the subject of their post graduation only. The candidates, whose post graduation subject is not covered in the list of subjects, may appear in a related subject.

Candidates having post-graduate diploma/certificate awarded by Indian University/ Institute or foreign degree/diploma/certificate awarded by the foreign University/institute should in their own interest, ascertain the equivalence of their diploma/degree/certificate with Master s degree of recognized Indian universities from Association of Indian Universities (AIU), New Delhi. (www.aiu.ac.in)

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How do I clear the online Aptitude tests?

You can clear the online Aptitude tests by practising the given test exercises.

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PhD-Research Management Aptitude Test

Research management aptitude test (rmat).

In a developing country like India the demand for professionally qualified managers to manage the scarce resources effectively and efficiently is high.

This is also indicated by the burgeoning number of institutes, which grant the MBA degree or its equivalent.

This growth however, has to be supported by growth in the availability of faculty with doctorate in management subject to man the positions in these institutes so that the quality of management education and research is further improved.

The AIMA and AMU Joint PhD programme is aimed at providing formal training to budding faculty and working managers, with inclination for academics, teaching an research. It helps in development of skills and competencies based on a sound understanding of the principles of management and methods of conducting research with scientific rigour.

PhD programme is beneficial for working managers who are constrained by time and location to pursue regular PhD from Universities and other Institutes offering full time PhD programmes. It helps in development of skills and competencies based on sound understanding of the principles of management.

For further clarification, please contact the undersigned:

Kiran Rawat Programme Manager All India Management Association – CME Lajpat Nagar-III, New Delhi-110024 (Nearby Lajpat Nagar Metro Station) Contact : 011 - 47673000/49868399. Ext:- 741 Email : [email protected], [email protected]

• RMAT Registration for 2022

GAT- Graduate Admission Test

What is gat, hec scholarships and admissions.

Once you have put in the time and done the work to prepare for the GAT exam, the best thing you can do is clear away your worries and relax.

Practice is one of the most valuable elements of GAT preparation. Approach each practice test as though you’re sitting down on your actual test day.

Strong GAT test-takers have a robust study plan. This helps them to stay on track week to week, and that consistency translates into progress as they work through the material.

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• भारत सरकार / Government of India
• शिक्षा मंत्रालय / Ministry of Education

/ Department of Higher Education

LATEST NEWS

• GPAT 2023 Result

Public Notices

News & events.

• Final Answer Key Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT) – 2023
• NTA Declares GPAT 2023 NTA Scores
• Display of Provisional Answer Keys and Question Paper with Recorded Responses for Answer Key Challenge for GPAT – 2023.
• Release of Admit Card for Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT)-2023.
• Advance Intimation for Allotment of Examination City to the Applicants of Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT-2023)-Reg.
• Examination Date & Schedule for Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT- 2023)
• Extension of last date for submission of Online Applications for the Entrance Exam for Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT)-2023
• Public Notice for GPAT 2023

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INTRODUCTION

Graduate Pharmacy Aptitude Test (GPAT) is a National Level Entrance Examination for entry into M. Pharma Programme.

Till 2018, the Test was conducted by All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE). NTA is conducting this Test since 2019.

This Test facilitates institutions to select suitable Pharmacy Graduates for admission into the Masters (M.Pharma) Program. The GPAT is a three hours Computer Based Online Test. A few scholarships and other financial assistance in the field of Pharmacy are also given on the basis of GPAT Scores.

The GPAT Score is accepted by all AICTE/Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) approved / affiliated University Departments / Constituent / Affiliated Colleges / Institutions.

Candidate Activity

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• Ministry of Education
• Pharmacy Council of India

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